When Jesus payed the ransom for our sins on the cross he was paying in advance. Right? He payed that debt before we were born or even thought of by our parents. He was also paying the debt for the saints that had already died and went to Paradise. Right? And he even payed the price for the thief who died with him.Jesus payed for all our sins PAST, PRESENT, and FUTURE. Yes!!! even the ones that we will commit in the future and if he has already paid the debt than why would he have to pay it again.
Wow, I thought that I opened up a can of worms when I started the thread on moral perfection!
I cannot help but notice that noone answered J-Bird according to his own logic. J-Bird has accepted the common theory that the atonement consisted of a payment of a debt. This teaching is completly absent from the scriptures. But scriptures are not used to arrive at this doctrine and so permit me to weigh the natural deductions of the teaching that the atonement consisted in the payment of our debt.
1) The atonement was made for all people. This is plain and let me note here that we are to look to the scriptures for the facts requisite to a proper understanding of this point. Some will postulate their peculiar teaching that the atonement consisted in the payment of a debt and at the same time will see that not all will be saved and then conclude that Christ only paid the debt for some people. We must not involve ourselves in this folly. The scriptures are plain the atonement was made for all people.
"For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life." John 3:16
"But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man." Heb 2:9
We can also see that the atonement must have been made for all people from the fact that God offers salvation to all people.
"And the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth all men every where to repent" Acts 17:30
"that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life." John 3:16
"And whosoever will, let him take the water of life freely." Rev 22:17
"If any man thirst, let him come unto me, and drink." John 7:37
"Look unto me, and be ye saved, all the ends of the earth: for I am God, and there is none else." Isaiah 45:22
There are probably a multitude of other verses that could be shown in this connection. The point is this. Could God be fair in offering salvation to all people or any people for whome there was no adequate atonement? It would be like saying to a poor man "Hey come over to my house for a feast it only costs $500". It would be a mockery.
2) Not all will be saved. This is plain from the following verses:
"Then shall he say also unto them on the left hand, Depart from me, ye cursed, into everlasting fire, prepared for the devil and his angels" Matt 25:41
"For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us which are saved it is the power of God." 1st Cor 1:18
I do not feel the necessity of showing a multitude of verses here at this point because I do not think that any of you will believe that all are going to be saved.
My reasoning is this. If the atonement was made for all people and not all will be saved then the atonement could not have consisted in the payment of our debt because then God would be presented as damning millions to Hell when the debt of their sin was already paid!!!!!And that would be nothing less than preposterous!
For the same reasons the atonement could not have consisted in Christ suffering our punishment instead of us. What!!!!???? Does our good God damn milliions to Hell when the punishment for their sin was already carried out on the cross of Christ???? Wow, now I think that I have opened up an even bigger can of worms.
No doubt, if Christ paid the debt of our sin on the cross then we could never lose our salvation, however, that teaching would be just as forcful in proving that all will be saved. Likewise, if Christ suffered the punishment of our sins then we could not lose our salvation but if Christ suffering the punishment of our sins made it impossible for us to lose our salvation then it would also be impossible for anyone to lose their salvation and noone will be in Hell.
If it is accepted, then, that I am right in my deductions then the question will be asked "How then are we saved by the blood of the Lamb?". Good question and I will, for now, refer the person would like the proper answer to that question to the following:
http://truthinheart.com/EarlyOberlinCD/CD/4/EdwardsAtonement/edwardsindex.htm
I simply conclude that the atonement was
[b]a condition[/b] of salvation along with other conditions that must perpetually be fulfilled in order for salvation to take place. I see the conditions as such:
1) Repentance. Sorrowing over your sin and returning to obedience. This must always be fulfilled. If you fall into a state of rebellion then you fall from salvation.
2) The atonement. The atonement was designed to produce a respect for the law of God that would have otherwise been produced by the punishment of the sinner. In order for this respect for the law of God to be produced in the mind of the sinner by the atonement then the atoenement must be believed and so faith in the atonement is also a condition of salvation. There is more than just a respect for the law that is produced by the atonement. Righteousness is also produced.
"For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness" Romans 10:10
Please ponder.