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THE ADVOCATES OF ANTI-NOMIANISM ( NO LAW ) !!

S
sonofthunder Sep 27, 2006

Today modern christianity to one varying degree
TO another seems to be returning back to the
above title of...."ANTINOMIANISM"

What pray-tell is "anti-nomianism" someone asks ??

It was something used to coin - " a phrase "
in the "early church" by our church fathers to
describe a certain "breed" of alleged "believer"
that taught that the "LAW" of God was to be
REJECTED/ OR WAS MADE VOID - ALTOGETHER,
UNDER THE NEW TESTMENT DISPENSATION OF GRACE !

They were throwing out the law and the command-
ments altogether, and persuading all and sundry
the under grace - the "law" has no place
whatso-ever, in the life of... believers.

This thinking and rationale is very popular today

Ive attended meetings for instance and the
speaker will "un-abashedly" proclaim - that the
ten commandments and the LAW - IS NOT OVER US !!

Now that "in part" is [true] - in that we who
are "gentile believer's according to the flesh" were never subject to "law" ( as the israelites were under it's - yoke - as such )

But if we stop their - and intimate THAT under
New-testament... the LAW - SERVES NO PLACE AT
ALL, THEN WE DO A DIS-SERVICE TO THE BOOKS OF
ROMANS AND GALATIONS AND MANY OTHER BOOKS.

But at this juncture let me be quiet for a moment
and let us read from Paul - and what he says.

Indeed let GOD be TRUE - and every man a liar !!

** ROM 3:31 "DO we make VOID the LAW through
faith ? ( answer is ) GOD FORBID: YEA WE ESTABLISH
THE.... "LAW"

** ROM 7:7 " WHAT SHALL WE SAY THEN IS THE "LAW"
SIN ?? ( REPLY ) GOD FORBID !

** ROM 7:12 " Therefore the law is ...HOLY, AND
THE COMMANDMENT HOLY, and JUST, AND ...."GOOD"

GAL 3:21 " Is the LAW then AGAINST the promises
of God ?? ( answer ) GOD FORBID !!

**1 TIM 1:8 " But we know that the LAW is GOOD,
if a man uses it - lawfully "

** JAM 2:9 " But if you have respect to persons,
ye COMMIT SIN, and are CONVINCED of the... LAW
AS TRANSGRESSORS. fOR WHO EVER KEEPS THE WHOLE
LAW, AND YET OFFEND IN "ONE POINT" - HE IS
GUILTY OF ALL. !!

** JAM 2:11 says this if i don't commit any
adulteries and take pride in that obedience,
but yet i on the other hand am guilty of murder
then i have become a transgressor...of the "LAW"
And will be judged by the..."LAW"

**1John 3:4 JOHN the beloved apostle gives us a
DESCRIPTION of SIN - " WHOSOEVER COMMITHETH SIN
TRANGRESSETH ALSO THE..."LAW": FOR SIN IS THE -
THE TRANSGRESSION OF THE LAW.

**Matthew 5:17-18 " THINK NOT THAT I CAME TO
DESTROY..."LAW" NOR THE PROPHETS: I AM COME
NOT FOR TO DESTROY BUT TO FULFIL.
{ JESUS GOES ON TO SAY IT EASY FOR HEAVEN AND
EARTH TO DISSAPPEAR - THAN FOR A SINGLE COMMA OR
A SINGLE QUESTION MARK OF THE "LAW" TO VANISH
AWAY - OR TO "PASS" AWAY FROM - THE "LAW"

TO what purpose then serveth the law ?? if we
are under Grace then ??

As Paul said by "law" - is the "knowledge" of SIN
( Rom 3:19-20 ) the law stops every mouth and
shows the world ...it's guilt... before God.

PAUL SAID he would not have known lust - except
the Law pointed out to me " thou shalt not covet"
( ROM 7:7 )

Furthermore in Romans 7:16 as Paul articulates
the power of sin and it's entrapment of the flesh
"IF then i do that which i would not, then that
is an acknowledgement or a consent - to myself, that the "law" ....of God is actually - good. !

But still some man will respond by saying: ahh
but yes the "law" only applies - to sinners to
lead them to a point of conversion, and then
he is free from God's laws - as such

TRUE or False though brethren ??

Christ hath redeemed me from the "curse" of the
law - many will cite - as proof of point.

HOWEVER what was Paul teaching ?? that GOD's
perfect laws are a "curse" or was he pointed
out that the curse lies in this " that if you
don't continue in "all things" - written by the
law of Moses - then a curse will befall you
and a curse, - then awaits you !!

Paul is simply saying that "dreaded curse which
is garanteed if you break one thing has now been
removed ( and that curse promised us - has lost
it's...sting ) Jesus has lifted/ removed from us that promised - "curse" GLORY !!!

That was a hard and unyeilding curse which was
inclusive of ALL the ordinances and statutes, all
orders of tabernacle, sacrifice, burnt offerings
etc etc SO thank God for Jesus, that he became
a curse on the tree, so that those Laws ( every )
ordinance and obligation, along with it's promised
curse for breaking them - has been stanched.
( that is stopped )

So glory that we are not under the Dueteronomy
promised curse - But that does that absolve us
from all ..."law"... GOD FORBID brethren.

Law is what sensitizes our conscience and trains
our conscience to what is [ right and wrong ] -
remember Paul said this " I did not know lust
at all, but that the law said [hey you] - that
is an offence and you are guilty of... "coveting"

And so the "law" of God nailed Paul, and made him
acutely aware, that such a thing is a - violation and (against the holy, JUST, and GOOD commandments
of... God ) !!

ROMANS eight is very clear that by CHRIST - and
through "faith" in his life...that he God - still
wants the " righteousness of the "law" to be
[fulfilled in us] even under new testament Grace
(romans 8:4) and this is accomplished in us by
walking in the spirit, and not after the flesh.

Indeed we are under the law of Christ now as Paul
stated to and at corinth - but what Paul
simply means is " all of God's law is fulfilled
in us -by that perfect life of Christ.

And that Christ is the end of the "law" ...for
"righteousness"

HENCE nobody is - justified - or saved - or made
righteous; by abiding by "law" ( keeping law )

You now are made righteous and receive the imputed
righteousness of Christ, by faith - and not
by the keeping of the... law !!

In other words righteosness ( right standing
with God) is obtained by the righteousness of
Christ ...and that "sinless" life.... he lived.

And not by Law - or through the keeping of what Moses gave to them.... in "old-testament"


Israel sought "justification" by the works of
the law, and not by the law of "faith"

Indeed they followed after righteousness, but as
it were - by the.... "works of the law"

The law gave us knowledge of sins commited -
but the fulfillment of righteousness in us, and
right standing with God - can only be obtained
by submitting to the righteousness which is by
faith - the law of faith ...in Christ.

Paul again states in 1 timothy 1:10 that anything
contrary to sound doctrine then is - "lawless"
and therefore is against the ..."laws" of GOD.

Law comes into play when we sin and offend - and
Law is still how God will judge the world by
his just and - "holy standard"

The law exists for transgression, for sin,
for law-breaking, to convict and convince all of
sin - when a violation has occurred - against GOD.


Only that we must know this: that by the deeds or
the keeping of - "law" is no flesh...saved or
justified - in God's sight.

This then eliminates: boasting, and saved by works
mind-set, or i keep the law therefore im saved,i keep this law, and i am lawful and good, and
am derserving of entering into heaven just like
everyone else... mind-set !!

DO we under grace: make void the law ??

Nay

WE ESTABLIsH !!

D
Dougmore Sep 27, 2006

May I ask brother, are you a messianic? We would agree on some points concerning law for I am a kingdom believer. Just checking you out.

bro Doug

S
sonofthunder Sep 27, 2006

Not at all ....brother

IM not messianic

I believe i fully understand justification
by faith and new-testament -grace

Don't mis-understand the posting !!

Many today teach the "law" under grace
is something bad or even - despised

Others say flat-out - we are not under any "law"

well Paul did not say that - did he

he still said gentiles are also under the
"law of christ"

his righteous life for our unrighteous life

By faith !!

And justification indeed by faith ( of Course )

But to preach the law is a curse !!!

Is not what Paul meant in Galations

THE curse is in the "failure" - to abide by
every "single ordinance" moses gave to the Jews.

Miss on any "one thing" - on the keeping of (law) - and whammo - the curse would come on you
and befall you !! that is the "curse" of the law

and not as modern teachers say: the law itself
is "the curse"

How so ?? THERE is no contradictions in the WORD

PAUL has earlier in ROMANS stated: the law
is good, the law is holy, and just !!

How can the law be good - and a curse at the
same time ??

GO FIGURE !

L
letsgetbusy Sep 27, 2006

Paris Reidhead on anti-nomianism:

"Paul saw that rodent born in hell stick its nose above the grating, and stomped upon it in Romans 6..."

D
Dougmore Sep 27, 2006

Brother,

I may sound dense, don't mean to, but what is your definition of law? Is it Torah, New Covenant based Christ teachings, pic and choose? What position are you coming from so I could better comment on the subject? I want to speak without misunderstanding.

I to believe in law and want to submit with all my being. To do so is to love God and obey. That I would say we both agree on.

bro Doug

S
sonofthunder Sep 28, 2006

HOW DOES ONE DEFINE LAW ??

AND THEN PUT IT INTO A " NEW TESTAMENT EQUATION" ?

Personally i don't agree with the Torah definition

Many people say Torah should substitute for...LAW

( AND WHAT THEY ARE SAYING AND MEAN BY THAT IS "THE WORD... LAW" ) AS SUCH

Was a "mis-translation" - ON THE PART OF THE NEW -TESTAMENT TRANSLATORS !

BUT I STRONGLY dis-agree, that the "word" [torah] should - replace the word [law]...IN SCRIPTURE

SO my stance is: I firmly believe the word "law"
is always the correct translation into THE ENGLISH LANGUAGE, AND I TRUST THE TRANSLATORS DID GET IT RIGHT - IN THE FIRST INSTANCE.

And i have faith that the (kjv translators) got
it right....when they translated the word "law"
into - both old and the new testament !

So that is the first thing you must understand with me - regarding this thing of - "LAW"

How can the word Torah - replace the word LAW ??

How does a five letter word, become a 3 letter
word ?? when translating ?? or vice-versa ??

YOU tell me - How - does that work ??

AND if you replace the word "law [with .....Torah]

THEN It greatly diminishes - the impact of what GOD sought and seeks to convey in the scripture !


ONE preacher who is false in my view said that
the word TORAH should replace "law" in the
new-testament, and that the english translators
got it all....wrong !! ( end quote )

No the only person who's got it all wrong is that
false teacher !

Let's entertain his notion for a few moments.

PUT the word "torah" into in romans 6 & 7 & 8 instead of word ... "LAW"

And see if it has the same impact or delivery ?

NO way: be not deceived with all this Torah talk !

The word is not found amongst the pages - even ... "once" ...in the king James bible.


Therefore i reject it's use - and i reject and refute those who say "torah" is a better translation and rendering into the new-testament -rather than that of the word.... ["LAW"]


Is an incredible mistake of immense and monumental
proportions !!

IF the word don't exist in the KJV friend then
it's probably the invention of "lawyers" or
seminary proffessors, or some "theologian" or
some - DOCTOR of the LAW or doctor of divinity.

When are we going to trust the ( kjv translators )

Law defined in simple terms: is GOD'S STANDARD
TO MANKIND FOR RIGHTEOUSNESS AND for... HOLINESS

Don't complicate things friends

Remember this law also ( k.i.s.s )"keep it simple
silly" - and Paul's concern to the corinthians no
doubt targeted the shrewd false teachers, who
sought to beguile people away - from the simplicity that is found in... Christ.

God is not the author of confusion either !!!

TOrah and all this confusion over LAW is the work
of cunning spirits - and doctrines of devils.

WHICH muddie the waters - and cloud issues.

LAW means standard - and law defines what not to
"DO" and if you breach and go against the "shalt
nots" in scripture, then your a law-breaker and have transgressed the ...law of GOD.

PAUL didn't complicate or confuse issues, and breaking the laws of the land is the same in
meaning as breaking God's law.

Break the laws of the land - and your in breach, you have violated, you have offended, you have transgressed, and a punishment and penalty awaits you. ( you are at fault and in error )

It's the same deal with GOD - go against his perfect standard of righteousness and his perfect
laws - and you are in error and at fault !!

There's nothing hard about it - friends

IN fact look up in any good dictionary what law
is - and you can come to very good definition.

I.E from readers digest dictionary (" rule, conduct, governing principle, edict, standing order, decree, ordinance, precept, commandment)

I think you get the point !!

HOW many of you know that the apostle Paul uses
the word "ordinance" and the word "rule"
in the "new-testament" ohh yes he did especially in the book of Corinthians & other places also.

SO my bottom-line is DOUG - that i trust the translators of the KING JAMES VERSION implicitly

So therefore i don't get caught up in all this
talk about talmud, torah, septuagint etc etc

If i don't see it that version, then i don't struggle with it, or wrestle with all these other
terminologies - that people like to throw around, and bandy all about. !!!

SATAN is the author of "confusion"
GOD is the author of "peace" and truth
And truth my friend, that is delivered with a GODLY simplicity about it ( amen and amen )

Have a great day
in the savior !! ( amen )

D
Dougmore Sep 28, 2006

S.o.f.

It seems that through that which you wrote the law that you would hold to is a pic and choose. Am I not correct? One must have a clear definition of their interpretation of law so as to submit. I personally only hold to the Kingdom of God laws. Many of which are found in the Old Covenant but are reiterated in the New. I hold to only those commands in the New Covenant and those that have been reiterated. For Christ said, that we must obey His commandments. This is my thought on the laws themselves. There is no doubt about it that this "modern church" is anti standard. We to often hear "No longer under law but in grace!"

This is a lie and deception.

S
sonofthunder Sep 30, 2006

NOT so doug

The holy standard never changes

The levitical and ceremonial aspects of the ...law

indeed have changed though ( book of hebrews )

The law is therefore - for "law-breakers"...[doug]

And the law serves it purpose - in this way.

IF a man is righteous - then the LAW is not
something that effects him ( in any way !! )

But if a man is in transgression or commits sin.

Then the LAW is their to convince and to convict
him of the violation - committed and incurred.

The LAW as Paul stated ...was ADDED - due to
transgressions commited.

The Law therefore never has, nor ever will - SAVE
A man ...from his sins.

It's role it to reveal the standard set by...GOD.

BUT never to save the soul ( as such )

SO therefore going from old covenant to new
covenant - the law which reveals right from
wrong - still is... and remains in force.

That said: the law is good - on "the condition"
that a man uses ( the law ) in context and uses
it properly, in light of new-testament Grace.
( Paul said it this way - that a man then uses it the law ... lawfully ) 1 Timothy chapter One.

AS i said before and so say i again the LAW in the
new-testament arena still has a ROLE and a function TO PLAY !! [IN OUR LIVES]

But a man for instance to use an allegory form
does not wake up in the morning and think to
himself - gosh i wonder if i will BE nabbed
for breaking the speed limit today or gosh i
wonder if i will get a parking-fine, or i wonder
if will be caught by a red-light traffic camera.

NAY - if he is a "law abiding" citizen - then he
doesn't think of breaking the law - nor it on his
mind. Until such a time as when an offence has
occured. And then the long arm of the LAW comes
after him, and tells him he has breached the standard - the code, and he is in violation.

And then the appropriate penalty is meted out by
those who are engaged to... enforce the LAW !!

And so he is reminded of the standards that are
in place, and the standard that is set...by LAW.

This then in A figure and in allegory form is how the role of ...law... works in our lives.

Paul told Timothy that the law was made for who ??
for the ... "LAWLESS", and for "law-breakers" and for the - "unrighteous"

SO the purpose of law was not to save people from
sins - but to show AND REVEAL... the standard !!

And when a breach of - STANDARD IS COMMITED THEN SIN IS IMPUTED TO THE...OFFENDOR, AND SO LAW, WAS
GIVEN FOR OUR BENIFIT - TO HIGHLIGHT OFFENCE

TO bring the conscience of man into ...sensitivity

And to convince all - under sin !!

To convince all: how far SHORT - THEY HAVE FALLEN
OF HIS....GLORY !! [AND HIS IMPECCABLE STANDARD]

AND TO SHOW HOW EXCEEDING SINFUL SIN IS - AND STHAT SIN IS VERY ADDICTIVE AND ENSLAVING, AND SEPERATES MAN - FROM HIS CREATOR.

AND THE EFFECT AND DESIRE OF LAW - WOULD BE TO
MAKE MAN SEE HIS NEED FOR AN ESCAPE - AND A SOLUTION TO HIS "SIN PROBLEM" - AND HOW TO HAVE
RESTORED FELLOWSHIP - BACK WITH GOD.

AND LEAD MAN TO OBEDIENCE AND REPENTANCE - and to
and see his need for ..." a saviour "

SO yes ["law"] which is the command TO OBEDIENCE, and that which - "SLAYS" a man's conscience - CONVINCING AND CONVICTING HIM OF SIN and OF transgressions - STILL REMAINS A "FORCE"

IN FACT EVERY OTHER COMMAND, ORDINANCE, RULE,and
EDICT....THAT PAUL AND THE OTHER APOSTLES GAVE US
IN the NEW-TESTAMNENT must likewise - BE ADHERED TO.

So the law is what trains and instructs the
conscience of man, as to what is right and wrong
according to his.... holy standards.

The Law came to ...."identify"... sin
TO SHOW behaviour and conduct - contrary to GOD.
And for man to realize HOW FAR... short of...
GOD'S GLORY - HE HAS COME TO.

THE PURPOSE OF GIVING LAW MY FRIEND IS TO SHOW
THE ENSLAVING NATURE OF "SIN" AND TO REVEAL
WHAT SIN IS....AND WHEN YOU HAVE DONE SOMETHING
CONTRARY TO HIS HLOY STANDARD.

THEREFORE WALK IN OBEDIENCE & WALK IN THE SPIRIT
and the "law" - as such, is not invoked - on you.

The law becomes a force when it is not adhered to.

AND that is the function and role of law - it was
added because of transgressions, as PAUL TOLD THE
GALALTIA BELIEVER'S.

OUR father Abraham was saved by faith and not by
the deeds of the law - and the law was yet even
given - for some 400 plus years after, Abraham's
conversion ( when declared righteous before GOd )
as a result of obedience and heeding the voice
of the almighty.


Law was never meant to be the means of salvation
in the life of a ..."worshipper" [never]

Have a great day
in the saviour
S.O.F

S
sonofthunder Sep 30, 2006

That said i admire and glory in your own desire
to obey from the heart all that God commands
from his Holy Word. !!!

Bless you Doug

D
Dougmore Sep 30, 2006

The holy standard never changes The levitical and ceremonial aspects of the ...law indeed have changed though ( book of hebrews )

So you are a pic and choose person... Hate to say it but those "pictures are/were a standard, one of which was set in stone, and therefore are as high as the rest of the Law. To say any different is to pic out which laws from the Old covenant are still applicable and that is human pride.

( Paul said it this way - that a man then uses it the law ... lawfully ) 1 Timothy chapter One.

How did Christ use the Law "Torah"? When He spoke to the rich young ruler He used sections of the law to show him that he was lost (Matthew 19:17-21).

Jesus also demands that we His sheep obey "His" commandments and to not do so is to reject Him.

"If ye love Me, keep my commandments."

"He that hath My commandments, AND KEEPETH THEM, he it is that loveth Me..."

"He that loveth me not keepeth not My sayings..."

"If YE keep my commandments, YE shall abide in My love..."

"Ye are My friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you." (John 14:15,21,24 15:10,14)

Jesus tells us that we must obey His laws to even receive eternal life, given by the grace of God.

"Every branch in Me that beareth not fruit He taketh away: and every branch that beareth fruit, He purgeth it, that it may bring forth more fruit" (John 15:2).

It is necessary for believers to abide in Christ so that through His power given to us we can obey and not break His commandments.

Hail the King! bro Doug

D
Dougmore Sep 30, 2006

Thanks brother,

Am I correct in saying that you feel that because some of Torah was pictures of Christ they are now non applicable? Correct that thought if it is wrong.

In Christ, bro Doug

S
sonofthunder Oct 1, 2006

Im not quite sure what you mean by pictures.

Torah is the wrong and poor substitute for...law

Law is correctly translated into our bibles

So let's stay with the word law...to describe

His standards and boundaries !!

I guess we can go around in a never ending circle

But i'd rather not

I think where some of your own mis-understandings lie is in the fact " Jesus kept the law...the mosaic law and the the prophets - he kept "

And so as you say he told people that questioned him, what does the law say ?? and he'd reply go and do like-wise and you shall....live.

Jesus paul said in Galation 4:4 was made of a woman and made of "law"

Meaning Christ came in old-covanant times and so he himself kept and adhered to the law ( every-one was still under Mosaic-law ) correct ??

But as we learn from Hebrews chapter nine: Christ blood of the ["new-testament"] introduced new -covenant and new-testament.

Hence the new-testament was instigated and [introduced ] upon the death of the "testator"
that being Jesus himself - of course.

So technically and scripturally the new testament was launched - upon his death - and not during his life. ( that is why he commended and practised the law of Moses ) saying go show yourself to the priest to the lepers and commending the pharisee's for their tithing principles.

As everyone including Jesus was "under" mosaic
law.

Until his death - the death of the testator

And so really the blood of his new-teatament is effectively "launched" upon his death at calvary.

Matthew, mark, luke, and John are historical and documented accounts of a man and life ( Jesus )
who ministered under "law" and grace came with pentecost and the early apostles.

Paul undertstood this fully

But the Jews stumbled and resisted - Paul went
to prison - why ??

Because he fought to implement grace and the new-testament into the churches !!!

The Jews thought it was blasphemy to desert Moses

And they must continue to preach moses in all the
synagogues - even James the apostle - exhorted to continue preaching mosaic law ....until he
finally saw that Paul was right, and the levitical priesthood and the mosaic law - even for the Jew had been dis-mantled and pulled down.

The transition was hard for the apostles themselves and why ??

Because they saw their Lord Jesus - keep and
honour the law !!!

So when Paul said it's gone and done away

They struggled to accept that - as Jesus kept law

So making the adjustment and realizing his death was to introduce new-testamnt grace, and dis-mantle the "existing priesthood", was a huge obstacle for their minds to grasp and for them to- - let go off, and to move on - going forward.

Blindness is meant to fall on those who resist and fight the truth or genuine scriptural change.

D
Dougmore Oct 1, 2006

Hi brother,

I agree with what you are saying concerning grace. And I understand what your saying about Torah. But when Jesus said, "Law,Psalms, and the Prophets, He is clearly speaking of Torah. Torah is the Law. It was Gods standard for OT believers. In Torah we see God Himself give the OT law.

In Christ, bro Doug

G
ginnyrose Oct 2, 2006

SOT wrote:

gosh i wonder if i will BE nabbed for breaking the speed limit today or gosh i

Sir, after reading to this point I could no longer read your post...I find the swear word 'gosh' highly objectable. Does the commandment "Thou shalt not take the name of the Lord thy God in vain" not mean anything to you?

ginnyrose

sermonindex Oct 2, 2006

One of my all time favorite books is John Fletchers "Checks to Antinomianism".

It's the best theological book I have ever read.

Fletcher writes public letters to ministers who were publicly attacking Wesley by calling him a heretic and a tool of the devil.Wesley was in his 70s during these letters.

But Fletcher hammers at the antinomianism of his day, the same antinomianism present in our own, and has very strong arguements where he uses scripture, reason, satire, quotes, etc etc.

He covers issues like original ability, conditional security, etc etc.

It's a classic and a must read.

S
sonofthunder Oct 2, 2006

Is this person for real ??

Gosh is a "swear word" or is "profanity" ??

Well here in australia it isn't thought of in that
way or manner

So how can you Impute sin to me - when i do not
know that i have used ... profanity ??

If "gosh" is a euphornism for some swear word then
i did not know that OKAY( so kindly practise love
and extend forgiveness to me - and for MY alleged WRONG ) !!

OR DID YOU ALSO FORGET THIS COMMANDMENT - THAT
IF YOUR BROTHER SINS AGAINST YOU - 70 times
7 IN ONE DAY = [490 times] - then you must
continue to forgive him.

Or this commandment " love covers a multitude of
sins " ?? and YOU HAVE TO get past all greviances AND OFFENCES TOWARDS YOU

( that is to say if im guilty as you say of THIS cuss word "GOSH" )

The truth lies much deeper THOUGH - than a petty
greviance, or in this perceived objection !!

The devil does not want to be found out
regarding THE mis-understanding and
application of these 3 things

1.the place of law
2.AND - the place of works
3.and how they are "both" correctly applied in
new-testament TIMES !!

Notwithstanding in this reply may God bless you,
and may you know the riches of this grace that
i speak of - in Christ !!


D
Dougmore Oct 3, 2006

Hi sister,

I find the swear word 'gosh' highly objectable. Does the commandment "Thou shalt not take the name of the Lord thy God in vain" not mean anything to you?

I completely understand what and where you are coming from. But may I ask, do you call Jehovah, "gosh"? Just curious. The true question is, can this be proven by scripture to be the name of Almighty God? Is there Hebrew or Greek that sheds light on this?

I don't believe there is.

In Christ Jesus, bro Doug

S
sonofthunder Oct 3, 2006

Hey i apolagize for the use of a "euphenism"

I looked it up in a dictionary and

and informally it means: to express surpise and
amazement at something or someone !!

Which is all i meant to do by use of allegory

So again forgive me this wrong.

But let us not swallow camels any[more]( pardon
the pun ) over such an matter.

Ive heard the "Jehovah" - argument before

Years ago the "freemanites" from Indiana
use to argue thick and thin over this thing.

Incidently they were the advocates of those
wanting the word "torah" to replace "law"
in n.t scripture.

Claiming "law" was wrongly translated from the
greek into the septuagint ( blah blah blah )

Doug years ago i learnt not to strive about words
to no profit(except that they subvert the hearer)

And strivings about the....law

Titus was exhorted to abstain from it - also

YOUNG Timotheos: well he was told that some
desire to be "teachers of the LAW" - but they
neither knew what they were on about - nor what
they were [affirming] - and consequently were
given over to {vain jangling}

The simple answer for me is implicit trust in the
KJV translators - and that they got it right !!!

And if i don't know the meaning of a word

I simply get several books to help [define] words

And along with [he] who guides into all truth {the comforter- the spirit of truth}in time
i arrive at corrct definition.

It's interesting that Jesus said he is the spirit
of truth - [that is the holy Ghost] AND JESUS
DEFINED HIS ROLE AS "GUIDING INTO "ALL"...TRUTH

So he is the "truth guider"

And not the ( greek ) or the talmud, or alleged
sea scrolls - or missing alleged cannonical gospels ad-infinitum.

So a big part of arriving at truth - is to listen
to his voice, and not what others are necessarily
writing about the - word of GOD.

If we substitute some author - or this book or
that book - over - DIVINE SCRIPTURE.

That can be the source of all the mass confusion
you see today over correct doctrine.

Just Too many people going around quoting this
man and that man's writings...instead of the WORD
of GOD.

Jehovah is in the kjv

SO at this stage Mr More - i just have to stay
with the KJV.

Only exception is the voice of the comforter
communicating to me - something perhaps went
awry in the original 1611 translating process.

have a nice day
in the saviour
s.o.f

A good book has it's place, but as opposed to
that of DIVINELY AUTHORED SCRIPTURE - well no
COMPARISON, whatsoever !!!

D
Dougmore Oct 4, 2006

Hi brother,

Claiming "law" was wrongly translated from the greek into the septuagint ( blah blah blah )

I agree with you and really don't care what (whoever they are) said. But when Jesus says, Law, Psalms, and Prophets He is clearly saying something.

What is it?

We know the psalms are part of the poetical scriptures. We know who the prophets are. And lastly we know where the "Law" is given in the OT. Would you not agree with this? The Jews put the "Tanak" (OT) into three sections, those mentioned above. What else could our Messiah been speaking of other than the section called "Torah". Look at the Jewish culture for this practice. You could go to any Barnes and Noble store, open up a "Jewish" not Messianic, OT and see for your self what and where the Jews break the scriptures down into. If you don't have the store mentioned above look it up online.

God be with you, bro Doug

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