Everbody has their say and that is indeed good , as i have done, and outlined in the following post.
Have i personally legislated that people can't own or carry around another copy or version of scripture. ?? ( no don't believe the post said that )
Everyman is rewarded according to their own works
( as i shall and will be too )iam accountable to God for my words - this i know well, and tremble.
Also i am "new poster" here, and not privy to what has gone on or been said before, nor what has been previously discussed at the forum.( so forgive me this wrong ). Forgive i pray you - then this very ignorance on my part ( sincerely )
Not many of you have commented on the missing texts - i brought to your attention ??
Why not - simply don't care, i was however hoping for some feedback on the Matthew 17:21 AND 1 JOHN 5:7-8 issues ( in particular )
People freely attack the ( Kjv ) edition and don't even bat a single eye-lid when they do it - i know friends as ive witnessed it with my own ears at their meetings, saying it's antiquated, not contemporary, and to hard to understand etc etc.
If they can under-mine the version a lot of people love, cherish, hold to, and trust impicitly, then it works both ways !!
Meaning if we defend it's accuracy and authenticity - then we are responding by re-action
I know it can be a sensitive issue...im not...so naieve in this - WAY - if i highlight then ommisions and errors, and a clear-case of distortions, how then is that reckoned to me as being one of - "offence" ??
Do we savour the things that be of God - or not ??
I can remember sitting in what modern churches call "pews" one morning, and the minister was doing a series on the "gifts of the holy spirit"
He was teaching on the gift of "prophecy" etc etc
When i happen to glance up at the man sitting in front of me, anyway i had my "bible" open at 1 cor 14 and so did he, it was then that i noticed
this sabotage....of no "distinction" made between tongues and unknown tongues, which is critical to our understanding of what happened in acts chapter two and acts chapter ten ( that which occured in those chapters was - "tongues" as a sign gift to the non-believers )
And unknown tongues is when what is uttered - no
man understands him ( at all ) therefore it is catagorized by Paul - as falling into this category of ["unknown"] tongues, and that person then is uttering "mysteries" in the spirit to his God.
Therefore he is speaking to God only !! ( and not to men ) and commanded by Paul to speak to God only - and not to MEN ( MEANING IT'S USE IS NOT - FOR PUBLIC USAGE ) NO ONE UNDERSTANDS HIM !!
His spirit is praying and he is uttering unintelligle words - therefore to speak in public has no place. ( as he utters - an unknown tongue )
Book of acts tongues was as a "sign-gift" {acts 2 & 10 } as they heard them magnify God - in their dialects.
So then THIS is 1st corinth 14 ( known tongues )
and the "unknown tongue" - is the tongue that no man understands, AS no interpretation follows.
( HENCE UNKNOWN TOGUE )
So it falls into the category of: "unknown tongue"
So he is admonished to speak to himself - and to [GOD only] OR HE IS EQUATED TO THAT OF BEING BARBARIAN. [A FOREIGN SPEAKER AND MIGRANT AS SUCH]
So speaking in tongues in public has no place unless accompanied by interpretation - OR UNLESS it the "sign gift tongue" to the non-believer DISPLAYED IN ACTS chapter [TWO AND TEN]
Which is permissable in public - because the heathen man fully understands what is being uttered and saidin his own known dialect ( again this then becomes tongues, because they are known tongues) and not what Paul described as the "unknown tongue".
So just another good reason why the newer bibles -are doing a in-justice in this way, and to the uncovering of precious truths.
Also the newer bibles have eliminated the terminology "holy Ghost" from most of their pages - and every thing is pronounced as being "holy spirit" instead and (no distinction)is again... made
1 John makes this distinction however: the Holy Ghost was in "heaven" bearing record to the certainty of Christ's coming into the world, whilst the [spirit] was in "earth" witnessing along with the "blood" and the "water" " - to both Christ's coming and that of his death in the earth.
1 Peter 1:12 says the "holy ghost" was sent "down" ...from heaven, upon Christ's death.
Which is the promise of the father ( the blessed comforter ) and the entire Joel chapter two prophecy and fulfilment.
So using Holy Ghost terminolgy is valid and distinctive in scripture - and so im Guessing that is the dilemna most new bibles had when they came to 1 john 5:7-8 they have not made any clear distinction, regarding the Holy Ghost in heaven [and] the spirit of God in the earth - and use the words holy spirit - to the total exclusion of the "Holy Ghost" in scripture.
Is that important though ?? well if Jesus said i will baptize you with the Holy Ghost and with fire, and that Holy Ghost according to 1 Peter was not [sent down], until after his acension, i would hazard a guess , that the right terminology and understanding of the Holy Ghost is rather significant !!
YOU SHALL KNOW THE TRUTH, AND THE TRUTH SHALL MAKE YOU FREE.
LIES BRING PEOPLE INTO NOTHING BUT CAPTIVITY AND INTO BONDAGE , AND LEAD US ASTRAY
THOSE WHO WANT TRUTH AND LOVE TRUTH - REJOICE WHEN ERROR IS BOTH OVERTHROWN AND EXPOSED, DEFEATED AND BROUGHT DOWN. !!
LIES PROSPER NO ONE, BUT TRUTH LIBERATES THE SOUL, AND SETS PEOPLE FREE ( GLORY GLORY )
S.O.F
Be blessed in your saviour
One and all - God bless !!
:-)