Throughout the years I have heard "Christian" apologist address many of the seemingly inconsistent facts presented in the four gospels. Some of these explanations have been explained in ways I find satisfactory. Some on the other hand have not been explained very well. Regardless of my opinion of their explanations, I did at least think that I was aware of the most obvious facts that on the surface appear inconsistent. However, recently I have had another seemingly inconsistent fact brought to my attention that I have never before noticed, nor have I ever heard this "inconsistency" addressed by "Christian" apologist.
The "inconsistency" is between John's gospel and the other three. Someone pointed out that Matthew, Mark, and Luke have the Last Supper being eaten as the Passover meal. Therefore the events following place the death of Christ the day after the evening in which the passover meal would be eaten. John on the other hand seem to clearly say that that meal Jesus ate with his disciples was on the evening before the day in which the people would eat the passover meal. Therefore, accoring to John's gospel, Jesus died on the afternoon before the evening in which people would eat the passover meal. This idea is supported with the following passages...
John 18:28 Then led they Jesus from Caiaphas unto the hall of judgement: and it was early; and they themselves went not into the judgement hall, lest they should be defiled; but that they might eat the passover.
This takes place after the evening in which Jesus ate the meal with his disciples. However, according to John,it is clear that the passover meal was still yet to come. This is why the Jews would not go into the judgment hall. They did not want to be difiled when they ate the passover meal later that day. Another verse clearly states that this day in which Jesus was being judged was the "preperation of the passover".
John 19:14 And it was the preperation of the passover, and about the sixth hour: and he saith unto the Jews, Behold your King!
According to this, it seems only possible that John is saying that Christ died on the afternoon before the evening in which the passover would be eaten.
This is a very stark contrast to the other Gospels that insinuate that the Last Supper was actually eaten as the passover meal. According to these authors Jesus died after the passover meal, according to John he died before. Since it cant be both, it appears that someone is relaying wrong facts. How do "Christian" apologist explain this seemingly great inconsistency? Do they have a reasonable explanation that does not force someone to abandon reason?
By presenting this I am not trying to shore up my faith, nor am I trying to tare down anyone elses. I have strong confidence in the gospels regardless of whether or not everything fits together. However I do know that some do insist that it must all fit together. I am only curious as to how someone can make John's discription fit in harmony with the other three gospel writers.
I would appreciate anyone willingness to pass on the explanations they may have heard regarding this issue.
Thank you so much.
