HiThis was originally a comment I supplied to another forum, but I wanted to repeat it here with reference to tongues as a 'sign to unbelievers'. You will see that this touches my understanding of the whole 'initial evidence' isse.On the basis of the above. This is not intended to be a full answer but just a start. tongues are for a sign, not them that believe, but to them that believe not 1 Cor 14:22 This follows a quotation from Isaiah 28. which says with men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people The question we have to answer is "a sign to whom?" Paul, quoting Isaiah, says this people that is to say the nation of Israel. Paul says the sign is to them that believe not If we put these two things together we discover that 'tongues were intended as a sign to unbelievers of the nation of Israel'. All Israel ought to have been believers, but they were not. Tongues was to be a sign to these 'unbelieving believers'! Does that interpretation check out from the scriptural record? Acts 2 is the first instance. More than 120 people were filled with the Holy Spirit, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance The hearers said we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God. Some bible students have concluded that this must mean they were preaching in other languages, but if we read the record carefully we discover that it was Peter who did the preaching later, and it is almost certain that Peter preached in Greek so that all could understand him. So what were the people who were 'speaking with other tongues' saying? They were speaking about the wonderful works of God. This may well mean that they were not preaching but simply praising God, but in other languages. This 'sign' was very arresting for the pilgrims in Jerusalem, a multitude gathered together. This event stopped them in their tracks and forced them to ask a question. what meaneth this? This doesn't mean they couldn't understand what was being said, but rather than they wanted to understand the significance of the event. Why is this happening, what does it mean? Peter then preached and said the Spirits coming was in fulfillment of Old Testament prophecy and was proof that Jesus was alive and at His Father's right hand, and that is was Jesus who had made this event possible Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear. When they heard this they were pricked in their heart... The sign of tongues had drawn a crown together of this people, the people of Israel, and provided an opportunity for Peter to preach the gospel. It was a proof to the hearers that God was doing what they saw happening. There's another example which is similar in some ways and very different in others. This is the events that happened in the home of Cornelius, the Gentile, in Acts 10. There were 7 witnesses to this event from this people, the people of Israel, they were Peter and 6 friends. (Acts 11:12) The early Christians were very reluctant to believe that God had included the Gentiles in His plans. We can see that from these two chapters in Acts 10 & 11. Peter himself seems confused by what is happening. He begins to explain the gospel to Cornelius, but still isn't really sure why he is there in Cornelius's house. The Holy Spirit suddenly (fell) came on everyone in the house. Peter and his friends were amazed. and they of the circumcision (this people,) which believed (they are Christian Jews now) were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Spirit. For they heard them speak with tongues and magnify God. There are some important things to notice here. This was a spectacular sign to this people that God had included the Gentiles in His plans. God had 'proved' it to them by giving them exactly the same sign as He had given to the 120+ in that upper room. There could be no doubt now that God had also to the Gentiles granted repentance unto life. (Acts 11:1. To these 'unbelieving believers', from among the Jewish Christians, who didn't believe that God could save Gentiles, God had given that same unmistakable sign. Does this prove that all who receive the Spirit will speak with tongues? Not necessarily, it just shows that God used this sign for 'unbelievers'. Some say today that tongues are the sign of the coming of the Spirit. I don't believe this is true, and if it were it should only be a sign to 'unbelievers'. I don't think those who look for it 'as a sign' would like to think of themselves as unbelievers, but that would be the logical conclusion to that kind of thinking. Tongues were never designed to be a sign to the tongue-speaker, but only to unbelieving onlookers. There is one more occasion when those who received the Spirit spoke with tongues. Acts 19. As far as I can see this was not a sign to unbelievers although I do wonder just who these disciples of John were. Perhaps in this instance tongues were not a sign to the unbeliever but just a blessing that they received and Luke records. For myself, I believe God still comes in a conscious way by His Spirit, and when that happens people do often/sometimes speak in tongues. But it would be wrong to use tongues as a sign that someone had received the Spirit. That was never the purpose of tongues.