But if any man love God the same is known of him.

I'm hoping for help from the resident Greek expert Philologos on this.

Paul says in 1 Cor. 8.3, "But if any man love God, the same is known of him."

Does this mean God knows the man who loves Him, or that it is the man who loves God who knows God?

Or can it be interpreted either way?

Is there anything in the Greek construction here that gives us the correct interpretation?

Thanks,
AD

PS... Philologos, I asked you another question recently on a thread called The Hope of Righteousness (under Scripture and Doctrine) but maybe you have not had opportunity yet to have a look at that. (Or maybe I should have flagged it more obviously in the Subject title.) If you have an opportunity to check that out, your input there would be much appreciated. Thanks.