Hi everyone,
I have recently been having a discussion about the [i]possibility[i]choose
"No temptation has overtaken you except such as is common to man; but God is faithful, who will not allow you to be tempted beyond what you are able, but with the temptation will also make a way of escape, that you may be able to bear it."
I received these objections:
I agree that Living a sinless life is a command to us as believers, but it does not follow that It is possible to "sin no more." God gives us commands that are impossible for us to obey. For instance, Acts 17:30 says "God is now declaring to men that all people everywhere should repent,", but John 1:13 says (speaking of the children of God) "who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God." And Romans 8:7-8 says "because the mind set on the flesh is hostile toward God; for it does not subject itself to the law of God, for it is not even able to do so, and those who are in the flesh cannot please God". Obviously, repenting of ones sins would be pleasing to God. But since no one who is in the flesh can please God, it follows that no one who is in the flesh can repent. Therefore it is impossible for anyone to obey the call to repent unless God intervenes and causes him to be born again. Or I guess you could say that the people who obey the call to repent, obey because God caused them to.
and
I agree that we cannot live sin-proof lives, but I disagree that the fall is the reason for this. Clearly, living before the fall did not prevent Adam from sinning. In fact, the fall is a result of Adam, who was created without a sin nature. It just occurred to me that if Adam could not live sinlessly (and he didn't have a sin nature - at first), what chance do we have?
Can anyone give me any handle on this?
Thank you in advance.
Brad.
