there are 2 things catholics have told me. when i refer the passages that say all have sinned, one catholic said " so you believe that every person that has ever lived has sinned?" he was trying to be sarcastic i think because he wasnt trying to actually ask me that question, but i dont know what he meant by that...he said you have to look at it from a hyper something point of view...2nd is Kecharitomene when mary is considered full of grace...they say something like the greek word for full of grace is Kecharitomene which meant sinless and then there is another word charitoo? well then if thats what the greek words meant then i guess the catholics are right? but i know mary was human...what im trying to say is that is it true about Kecharitomene and if its not then do you have proof or evidence? and if it is true well then does that mean she was sinless? obviously catholics have somewhat good reasons for thier ways...i mean they didnt just pop out of no where, i mean maybe the greek words do mean this...i just want good answers that show how its made up..i dont just want to hear an answer that says well catholics are wrong or something. if someone knows about the greeks and can show that this isnt what they mean please let me know
