When I read the following two portions of scripture, I feel them to mean that Jesus Christ [u]is[i]now[i]only
Is the immediacy of this interpretation justified by the Greek, or is the alternative ambiguity of (various) translations justified?
1 Peter 1 NKJV
13 Therefore gird up the loins of your mind, be sober, and rest [i]your[u]is to be brought to you [b]at
14 as obedient children, not conforming yourselves to the former lusts, [i]as
Young
13 Wherefore having girded up the loins of your mind, being sober, hope perfectly upon the grace that [u]is being brought to you [b]in
14 as obedient children, not fashioning yourselves to the former desires in your ignorance,
2 Thessalonians 1 NKJV
10 When he shall come to be glorified in his saints, and to be admired in all them that believe (because our testimony among you was believed) in that day.
Young
10 when He may come to be glorified in his saints, and to be wondered at in all those believing--because our testimony was believed among you--in that day;
