I have never said that God does not love the world, but that love is manifest in differing ways. Mercy is what all men have in that they are able to breathe, and live, and have crops etc. But this love does not bring anyone to Christ as the natural man will eat all this up, and then create his own idol to worship rather than worship his Creator.
Note also what this is saying, and to whom. This verse was spoken to a Jewish religious leader who was of the thought that the Messiah would save only the Jews and leave the Gentiles to perish as was common thought then. Yet Christ says, "no Nicodemas, God so loved all nations and types of people that He sent His Son."
Then comes the main part, "that whosoever believeth on Him shall not perish..." Notice it does not say "whosoever will be saved", but "whosoever believeth", and because we know that the natural man receives not the things of the Spirit, and that no man can come to Christ unless the Father draws him, believing is not something man can do on his own.
Here is the verse you use-
1Jn 4:9 In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him.
Now nowhere does it say anything about Christ dying for sins of the whole world, and also, who is the "us" and the "we" referring to? If it is unsaved, then you have universal redemption, if it is to Christians, you have encouragement to them, in and through Christ and his work.
2Pe 3:9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
Again, who is this adressed to?
2Pe 3:1 This second epistle, beloved, I now write unto you; in both which I stir up your pure minds by way of remembrance:
And to further show the audience,
2Pe 1:1 Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, [b]to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ:[/b]
Who did Peter write the First EPistle to?
1Pe 1:1 Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, [b]to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia,
1Pe 1:2 Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ:[/b] Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.
Unless I am mistaken Peter is adressing Christians. Therefore, we must look at what he is saying to them.
So looking at this verse in the context of the Epistle-
2Pe 3:9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
Who is God long suffering towards? "us"
Who is the "us"? Christians
Any of who? in context, it would be Christians, as Peter is explaining to the believers why Christ has not returned yet, it is to finish bringing in His people.
2Pe 2:1 But there were false prophets also among the people, even as there shall be false teachers among you, who privily shall bring in damnable heresies, even denying the Lord that bought them, and bring upon themselves swift destruction.
Where does it say anything about being bought by blood? It is true that it says these were purchased, but by whom?
Unfortunately, I have to use Greek here. The term for Lord is not kurios which is found in salvation or redemption passages, but rather despotes from which we get the term despot. This term is along the lines of a sovereign master. Now did not Christ purchase all the World, and is He not Ruler over all mankind saved and unsaved? Did He not purchase the field, to gain the treasure?
So yes Christ owns these men, as their Creator, and one whom they will answer to, bt there is no mention of them being redeemed. Even the Greek word for bought, which is agorazo, when it is used in salvation passages always has the element by which this happened. Take for instance-
1Co 6:20 For [b]ye are bought with a price:[/b] therefore glorify God in your body, and in your spirit, which are God's
There only two passages where this word is used to point to a purchase of salvation, and your passage is not one of them.
Your first verse-
Joh 5:14 Afterward Jesus findeth him in the temple, and said unto him, Behold, thou art made whole: sin no more, lest a worse thing come unto thee.
How this applies I do not know, as this was prior to the work of the Cross, and the payment for sin, and seems out of place in this discussion.
Next one-
1Co 10:13 There hath no temptation taken you but such as is common to man: but God is faithful, who will not suffer you to be tempted above that ye are able; but will with the temptation also make a way to escape, that ye may be able to bear it.
This is pointing to God's gracious work in our trials brother, and should be used to encourage not to beat upon. The word for temptation does not have any link to sinful activities, but rather trials, adn Paul is saying that God is faithful in the trials He allows to also present a way out of them.
Next-
1Jn 5:3 For this is the love of God, that we keep his commandments: and his commandments are not grievous.
Yes, but this again is written to Christians who have the Spirit to help keep them, and also these are already justified, having the ordinances against them blotted out and nailed to His cross(Col 2:13,14)
And if a Christian never sins again, what of this-
1Jn 5:16 If any man see his brother sin a sin which is not unto death, he shall ask, and he shall give him life for them that sin not unto death. There is a sin unto death: I do not say that he shall pray for it.
Of course the sin unto death would be the blasphemy of the Holy Spirit would it not?
Your last one-
1Jn 3:8 He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.
Yes he that commits sin is imitating the devil, this does not say he belongs to him. but Christ destroyed or loosed(LIT) the bonds of those works. The point here is that no one who says he is a Christian will go on in an unrepentant attitude towards sin, he cannot because there is a new nature in him that causes him to grieve and repent.
As far as i have explained these verse properly, I say AMEN.
One last point, the message you are preaching does not need Christ to have died, and would be welcomed by many who seek to justify themselves according tou their own good works. but you have blurred justification adn sanctification, adnmade them one and the same, when they are different.
True justification cannot but lead to sanctification, but God does not re-open the books and retry you for the sin you have already been redeemed from. We do not operate as criminals once we are justified, but as sons, and thus we have access throgh Christ and His work and His merit, and this will produce sanctification in the life of the child of God.
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