1 John 1:8If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us.It seems that if Holiness doctrine is presented, this verse is usually brought up. Reasonably so.I won't get into the whole Holiness debate (though I am greatly looking forward to the upcoming treatment of the issue by Philologos), I just want to know what the historical interpretation(s) of this verse have been down through the ages.The two main interpretations I know of are:"The text means everyone, Christians included, regularly sin, and saying that one no longer sins is a lie."and"The text means everyone, Christians included, has a sinful nature that influences him/her towards sin, though he/she does not necessarily commit sin on a regular basis, and for one to deny that they have a sinful nature is to lie."I'd just like to know the positions of the Church on this verse. For instance, is it true (as someone I know claimed) that 90% or Christians in the past have believed the first interpretation?As I understand it, the second interpretation is not unique to Wesleyan/Holiness/etc movements that believe in Christian Perfection, but that (for example) Charles Ryrie believes the second interpretation (or something like it) as shown in his study Bible's footnote on 1 John 1:8.Anyway, have at it :)May God's will be done in all of us as it is in Heaven,-Keith
