This pet scriptur has been used by some people to proove their point an some matter.
I would like to disect this scripture to show that there is no inability for the natural man to come to receive the things of the Spirit of God.
[b]1Corinth 2:14
This inability is like saying that one can not because a refusal to do a prior requirement for the ability to do the other.
Example: [b]John 14:17
Just as the first verse, the sencond has no implication of inability and one must not asume that they do.
Just as the natural man is not able to know the things of the Spirit of God because the natural man chooses not to receive them.
[b]Recieving is not the same as knowing.
The reason for the inability of knowing "the things of the Spirit of God" is because of the refusale or unwillingness to recieve them.
There is no inability implied in recieving "the things of the Spirit of God"
Just as:
The world cannot receive the Spirit of Truth because chooses not see Him nor know Him.
There is no inability implied in seeing Him(the Spirit of Truth) or knowing Him.
Therefore, the reason of these inabilitis are because of the refusal or unwillingness of seeing Him(the Spirit of Truth) or knowing Him.
and refusal or unwillingness of recieving "the things of the Spirit of God"
Again, the "not seeing Him or knowing Him" does not imply inability, man only chooses not to or is unwilling to see Him or to know Him.
There is no inability to see God or to know Him, because God has has went to great lengths to make sure that all mankind can see Him or know Him.
The foolishness of the things of the Spirit of God does not make a natural man unable to receive them, for he is able to receive them by seeing Him or by knowing Him.
The foolishness of the things of the Spirit of God only makes him unable to know them because because they are spiritually discerned.
[b]NO!
