Hi Ben
I don't know, but wonder if it was at least partly consensual. Looked up the word where it says he "took" her. It has a very broad meaning; it can mean by force, but not necessarily. Perhaps he seduced rather than raped her.
Certainly it says he loved her and comforted her afterwards, (literally "spoke to her heart") The scenario seems very unlike that when David's son, Amnon raped his half-sister Tamar (2Samuel 13). In the latter case it is made plain that it was by force and very much against her consent.
Hamor being a prince, and probably with the usual pagan attitude towards women, as men's possessions, maybe didn't realise that he was doing anything so very wrong! As a prince he probably believed that he had the right to any woman he wanted!
I remember being on jury service some years ago and one case was of attempted rape. The complication was that he had had relations with the girl before, and she had been willing, but this time she refused. She wasn't injured at all, and I felt rather sorry for the boy because he obviously didn't think he'd done anything very wrong either! But we had to find him guilty and he "went down" for a couple of years all the same.
That's how pagan society is...
It's an interesting study. If only the young man had been allowed to marry Dinah they may have had a happy marriage. Even his reaction afterwards was the total opposite of Amnon's - gentle and loving, and longing to make all right by marrying her.
Of course it was sin, and of course, as Linn says, not asking her father's consent first was probably considered a greater fault in that culture, as well as the fact that Jacob's family were supposed to keep apart, because of the convenant with God, and not intermarry.
Blessings
Jeannette