Today, I was caught in the crossfire of Isaiah 63, getting stuck around vv 4 - 7. The introduction to the chapter is [i]rich
Then, I noticed v 4 again, particularly 'day' and 'year'.
In the light of many Christians being readily (and perhaps not critically enough), amenable to extract [u]literal[i]other[u]biblical[u]day[u]year
Here is a control verse: Ephesians 5:9 (It is in parenthesis in the text.)
(For the fruit of the Spirit [is] in all goodness and righteousness and truth;)
Here, we see clearly that 'goodness', 'righteousness' and 'truth', being used all in the same verse, must have each their own biblical meaning. Truth, for instance, is not something one tells in court, it is Jesus Christ.
Going back to 'day' and 'year': as in 'the last day', or 'in the year that', either these words mean something slightly different depending on their context, or, they mean twenty-four hours, and three hundred and sixty-five days every time.
If it's not the latter, what are they?
4 For the [u]day[u]year
The 'year' appears to refer to the future; yet, coming from the [i]heart[i]mouth[u]present
Did the 'day of vengeance' occur before the cross? If so, when?
I have the same question about 'the year of my redeemed'. If so, when?
