In light of the bible prophesies about humanity in the end times and false prophets and the current “revival” , I am trying to get a deeper understanding of the way God works through people and the way satan works through people. Jesus warned a lot about false prophets, but also gave warnings of not blaspheming the Holy Spirit and explained that from an evil source can come no good and vice versa.
I would like some input from my brothers and sisters at SI, because some things are not really clear to me. It might be a bit lengthy, but I appreciate your input.
[i]Matt. 7
21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven. 22 [b]Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works?
My question(s) is this.:
Have these people really cast out devils in Jesus name? Or do they only think they did, while in realtiy no demon was really cast out? Or have they only used his name and power to do these things while at the same time they are workers of iniquity. I always thought the last one was true but I am not so sure anymore.
I ask this because Jesus [b]never[b]work iniquity
They are workers of iniquity and are prophesying in Jesus name, this qualifies them for being false prophets. I believe according to scripture a false prophet is used by satan to deceive etc. So if these false prophets claimed to have used Jesus name and thereby His authority and therefore His power to do the things they say they did, then the Kingdom of God would have been cooperating with the kingdom of darkness, which seems pretty unlikely? (Are these then not also divided kingdoms?) (Or is the story of Bileam such an example?)
And if satan would provide power to do al these “wonderfull works” including casting out demons then his kingdom would be divided.
[b]So do these workers of iniquity really cast out demons etc.?
Some bible verses and my thoughts and questions there on:
[i]Matt12[b]And if Satan cast out Satan, he is divided against himself; how shall then his kingdom stand? 27 And if I by Beelzebub cast out devils, by whom do your children cast them out? therefore they shall be your judges. [b]Either make the tree good, and his fruit good; or else make the tree corrupt, and his fruit corrupt: for the tree is known by his fruit.
Jesus seems to imply that the sons of the Pharisees are casting out demons (fruit) by the power of God (tree), and not by the power of darkness because if satan would be casting out satan then his Kingdom would not stand.
[i]Mark 9.
38 And John answered him, saying, Master, we saw one casting out devils in thy name, and he followeth not us: and we forbad him, because he followeth not us. 39 But Jesus said, Forbid him not: for there is no man which shall do a miracle in my name, that can lightly speak evil of me. 40 [b]For he that is not against us is on our part.
It does not look like Jesus is labelling this man as a worker of iniquity, he even is on Jesus’ part. This man could not lightly speak evil of Jesus. Were the workers of iniquity from Matthew 7 whom Jesus never knew ever on Jesus part?! Did/do they ever do a true miracle in Jesus name?
[i]John 9
24 Then again called they the man that was blind, and said unto him, Give God the praise: we know that this man is a sinner. 25 He answered and said, Whether he be a sinner or no, I know not: one thing I know, that, whereas I was blind, now I see. 26 Then said they to him again, What did he to thee? how opened he thine eyes? 27 He answered them, I have told you already, and ye did not hear: wherefore would ye hear it again? will ye also be his disciples? 28 Then they reviled him, and said, Thou art his disciple; but we are Moses' disciples. 29 We know that God spake unto Moses: as for this fellow, we know not from whence he is. 30 The man answered and said unto them, [b]Why herein is a marvellous thing, that ye know not from whence he is, and yet he hath opened mine eyes. 31 [u]Now we know that God heareth not sinners[u]If this man were not of God, he could do nothing.
Can we take the underlined statements of the healed man as an absolute truth about God or should we take it with a grain of salt because he was “just an unlearned man”. Beacause the workers of iniquity in Matthew 7 are not of God and say they did miracles in Jesus name and according to this scripture it is not possible they truly did this.
[i]Acts 19:13
13 Then certain of the vagabond Jews, exorcists, took upon them to call over them which had evil spirits the name of the Lord Jesus, saying, We adjure you by Jesus whom Paul preacheth. 14 And there were seven sons of one Sceva, a Jew, and chief of the priests, which did so. 15 And the evil spirit answered and said, [b]Jesus I know, and Paul I know; but who are ye?
Paul was a man of God. These Jews apparently not. They seem not to be on Jesus’ part. This seems to confirm the sayings of the man in John 9: [i]“Now we know that God heareth not sinners” ” If this man were not of God, he could do nothing.”
Thank you for your comments.
Jeppe
