Justification: The declaration by the Judge as "not guilty". Abraham was justified by faith.
I think this question is a bit tricky. We have had this discussion before and perhaps we can try to reconstruct some of the thoughts:
At what point was Abraham justified? When he left Ur of the Chaldees or at some later point? All we know for sure is that it was [i]before[/i] God gave him the covenant of circumcision. Abraham 'believed' and that belief yielded obedience.
[color=000066](Rom 4:8) Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.
(Rom 4:9) Cometh this blessedness then upon the circumcision only, or upon the uncircumcision also? for we say that faith was reckoned to Abraham for righteousness.
(Rom 4:10) How was it then reckoned? when he was in circumcision, or in uncircumcision? [u]Not in circumcision, but in uncircumcision.[/u]
(Rom 4:11) And he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had yet being uncircumcised: that he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be not circumcised; that righteousness might be imputed unto them also:
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Notice that the 'proof' of Abraham's justification was that he received the 'sign' or the 'seal' of circumcision. Circumcision of the flesh was symbolic of circumcision of the heart. We learn this from a few passages:
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Col 2:11 In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ:
Php 3:3 For we are the circumcision, which worship God in the spirit, and rejoice in Christ Jesus, and have no confidence in the flesh.
Rom 2:29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God. [/color]
Now, we know that for Abraham circumcision of the flesh came [i]after justification[/i]. Why? because he received [i]the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had yet being uncircumcised:[/i]
What is that [u]seal[/u] today? It seems clear that the 'seal' is the signet of the Holy Spirit (Eph 1:14, 4:30). Abraham's circumcision of the heart was a type or shadow of the future receiving of the Holy Spirit. So we have to ask ourselves; what is 'imparted righteousness' biblically?
It can be none other than the receiving of the Holy Spirit; the born again experience. We are baptized into the body Jesus Christ by the Holy Spirit (I Cor. 12:13). It is this baptism that allows us to leave off from the Old man and become part of the one New Man (Eph. 2:15). Circumcision of the heart takes place in that the Sin is dealt with and the mortal body is 'quickened'
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In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ:
Col 2:12 Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.
Col 2:13 And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses; [/color]
Notice how this seems to be a package deal.
(Rom 8:11) But [u]if[/u] the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you.
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(Rom 8:12) Therefore, brethren, we are debtors, not to the flesh, to live after the flesh.
(Rom 8:13) For [u]if[/u] ye live after the flesh, ye shall die: but [u]if[/u] ye through the Spirit do mortify the deeds of the body, ye shall live.[/color]
So we see then that the 'seal' of the [u]justification[/u] in Abraham's time was physical circumcision; but the proof or seal in our times is the indwelling presence of the Holy Spirit that yields the fruit of the Spirit. The love of God is shed abroad in the heart and God works in the person both to [i]will[/i] and to [i]do[/i] His good pleasure. I believe this is circumcision of the heart- the fulfillment of the figure of physical circumcision.
Again, at what point was Abraham justified? he did not as much as know that there be any 'circumcision' before God revealed it in Gen. 17. (compare also Acts 19:2). So the question becomes, were the folk in Acts 19:2 'justified'? In other words, if they died before hands were laid on them would they have went to heaven?