Question: Was Abraham unrighteous or ungodly before God spoke to him? . . . .Was he either or neither? Was Abraham a "lawless" person? Did he do deeds of unrighteousness; that demonstrated his unrighteousness towards God or did he do deeds of righteousness that testified of the law of God written upon his heart or could he from a disposition that, is given to us to believe, was without God?
I don't believe it can be found that God ever spoke to an unrighteous person except through a Prophet. Am I wrong?
". . . in every nation the person who fears Him and does righteousness is acceptable to Him."
Acts 10:35 (HCSB)
"For what does the Scripture say? "Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness." . . . . But to him who does not work but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is accounted for righteousness,just as David also describes the blessedness of the man to whom God imputes righteousness apart from works: "Blessed are those whose lawless deeds are forgiven, And whose sins are covered; Blessed is the man to whom the Lord shall not impute sin." Does this blessedness then come upon the circumcised only, or upon the uncircumcised also? For we say that faith was accounted to Abraham for righteousness.
Romans 4:3,5-9 (NKJV)
