Easter or Passover?

[b]Is there a difference in Bible Versions?[/b]

Many critics of the King James Bible point to Acts 12:1-4 to prove that the King James is a mistranslation. The King James indicates that Peter was to be kept in prison until after "Easter". All of the newer Bible versions have changed this to "Passover" instead.

Is this change from the King James from Easter to Passover by the textural critics Biblically sound? What does the Bible itself have to say about Passover and the feast of unleavened bread?

What Was Easter Originally? The word " Easter" is found one time in the entire authorized King James Bible:

Acts 12:1-7 (KJV)
"Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church. And he killed James the brother of John with the sword. And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after [b]Easter[/b] to bring him forth to the people."

So here we have a situation in Acts chapter 12. Herod had just beheaded James, it made the Jews happy. Now Herod wanted to kill Peter also, but he wanted to wait until after "Easter" according to the King James Bible. [b] Notice that the NIV bible has the word "Passover" instead of "Easter."

Scripture from the King James Bible proves that "Easter" is in fact, the proper word to use.[/b]

The word "Easter" here, does NOT refer to "Easter" as we know it today, nor does it refer to the word " Passover" as it is wrongly translated in all newer Bible versions.

Though many Christians celebrate "Easter" in remembrance of the resurrection, Easter was originally a pagan festival (etymology of your dictionary should confirm this),[b] which is what Acts 12:4 refers to and not the Passover.[/b] We can determine this by looking at the passage.

The Webster's New World Dictionary gives the following etymology (origin and development of a word), for the word "Easter":

[b]originally, name of pagan vernal [spring time] festival ALMOST COINCIDENT in date with paschal [Passover] festival of the church,

--Eastre, dawn goddess --Austro, dawn[/b]

In other words, Easter was originally a pagan festival celebrated in the spring time.

[b]"Easter" is Only Translated Correctly in the King James Bible

The word, "Easter" has been incorrectly translated "Passover" in ALL Bible versions except for the authorized King James Bible.[/b]

How do we know this? The Bible proves it (the Bible is always its own prooftext). Notice again in the passage of Acts 12:1-4, King Herod killed James. When he saw that it pleased the Jews, he also took Peter. Notice that Herod took Peter DURING the DAYS OF UNLEAVENED BREAD and was going to bring him forth to the people AFTER Easter.

[b]"In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD's passover. And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread." (Leviticus 23:5,6)

So we learn from this Scripture that the day of Passover fell on the 14th day of the first month, and then the "FEAST of UNLEAVENED BREAD" began upon the 15th day of the first month.

The days of unleavened bread came AFTER Passover! Acts 12:3 tells us that Peter was apprehended DURING the "days of unleavened bread." This means that the day of Passover had ALREADY occurred. "Easter" could not have been Passover, because Passover occurred BEFORE the days of unleavened bread. Passover had come and gone. Herod decided to bring Peter forth AFTER Easter.[/b] This is the sequence:

1. PASSOVER

2. DAYS OF UNLEAVENED BREAD

3. EASTER

Let's look at it from the book of Numbers as well:

[b]Passover only comes once a year on one day, the 14th of Abib ( Num 28:16). After the Passover comes the days of unleavened bread (Numbers 28:17), extending from the fifteenth day through the twenty first day of Abib. So when Peter was arrested during the days of unleavened bread (Acts 12:3), Passover had come and gone! The Bible says that Herod was going to bring him forth AFTER Easter ( which had not come yet).

When the King James Bible says " EASTER" in Acts 12:4, it is correct; when the other versions say " PASSOVER" in Acts 12:4, they are incorrect. " Easter" in this passage is referring to a pagan festival (remember the etymology teaches that the pagan " Easter" is almost coincident with paschal (Passover)...

Just imagine what other "changes" to God's Spirit Breathed Word have been performed by the "textural critics", with their scissors and black markers. What a shame, yet many cannot see any difference, and even prefer the "newer" versions! [/b]

Sincerely,

Walter

To Philogos:

My response would be that God has supernaturally preserved His Word, like He has promised us He would do. In this case, by the instruction #3 of the King.

Acts 12:3 tells us that Peter was apprehended DURING the "days of unleavened bread."

Passover occured BEFORE the feast of unleavened bread. Passover was the 14th of Abib, starting at 6:00 P.M. Wednesday night and ending at 6:00 P.M. Thursday. At 6:00 P.M. Thursday, the 15th of Abib, started the seven day "Feast of Unleavened Bread". This day (the 15th) was a High Holy Day, and celebrated as a Sabath day, eventhough the day did not occur on Saturday (the real Sabath day).

Scripture is clear, specifically, as I posted earlier:

Passover only comes once a year on one day, the 14th of Abib ( Num 28:16). [b]After the Passover comes the days of unleavened bread (Numbers 28:17), extending from the fifteenth day through the twenty first day of Abib. So when Peter was arrested during the days of unleavened bread (Acts 12:3), Passover had come and gone! The Bible says that Herod was going to bring him forth AFTER Easter, it is referring the Pagan celebration of Easter, not the Passover. He was arrested after the Passover had actually occurred.[/b]

When the King James Bible says " EASTER" in Acts 12:4, it is correct; when the other versions say " PASSOVER" in Acts 12:4, they are incorrect. "[b] Easter" in this passage is referring to a pagan festival (remember the etymology teaches that the pagan " Easter" is almost coincident with paschal (Passover)...[/b]

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[b]Philogos, please respond with Scripture to prove your point. Passover (Pascha) had already occurred before Peter was arrested. Herod intended to bring Peter before the people after Easter. How do we know this? Because he was arrested AFTER Pascha (Passover).

Instruction # 3 definitely has merit in this case and surely did not come from fallen man, but from God through the Holy Spirit and placed into the mind of the King.[/b]

Sincerely,

Walter

philologos wrote:
What a "peculiar exegesis". The Greek word translated 'Easter' here is used on 28 other occasions in the KJV where it is translated 'Passover'. As a strong advocate of the KJV I prefer to regard it as wrong in Acts 12:4 and right in the other 20 instances rather than wrong 28 times and right only once.

The Greek word 'pascha' is a transliteration of the Hebrew [url=http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=H6453&t=KJV]pecach (Strong's H6453) [/url] The Hebrew word is pronounced "peh'·sakh" and hence the Greek version "pascha". In the LXX text of [color=0000FF]On the fourteenth day of the first month at twilight is the LORD’S Passover. Lev 23:5 NKJV[/color] the word for 'Passover' is 'pascha'.

The KJV translators were simply complying with Instruction No 3 of King James instructions to 'return to' 'ecclesiastical language'(*). The pattern can be seen clearly by comparing Tyndale, Geneva and the KJV.

[color=0000FF](t) and when he had caught him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternion of soldiers to be kept, intending after [u]Easter[/u] to bring him forth to the people.

(g) And when he had caught him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to be kept, intending after the [u]Passover[/u] to bring him forth to the people.

(k) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after [u]Easter[/u] {Gr. Passover} to bring him forth to the people.[/color]

* No 3. The ould ecclesiasticall words to be kept viz. as the Word Churche not to be translated 'Congregation' etc.

This specific instruction of King James has had a profound effect on the KJV and on all subsequent translations.

To Philologos:

You stated:

"If this were the case why not use the Greek word for Easter? In any case you clearly don't understand that the word Passover relates to both a day AND a period of time."

my response:

[b]Please provide Biblical prooftext to your statement above that "the word Passover related to both a day AND a period of time".[/b]

Thank you,

Walter

philologos wrote:

My response would be that God has supernaturally preserved His Word, like He has promised us He would do. In this case, by the instruction #3 of the King.

Where was God when the Geneva Bible was translated? Do you really want me to show you the errors in the KJV?

When the King James Bible says " EASTER" in Acts 12:4, it is correct; when the other versions say " PASSOVER" in Acts 12:4, they are incorrect. " Easter" in this passage is referring to a pagan festival (remember the etymology teaches that the pagan " Easter" is almost coincident with paschal (Passover)...

Even if this were right, and it isn't, this would be an interpretation built into the translation.

Passover only comes once a year on one day, the 14th of Abib ( Num 28:16). After the Passover comes the days of unleavened bread (Numbers 28:17), extending from the fifteenth day through the twenty first day of Abib. So when Peter was arrested during the days of unleavened bread (Acts 12:3), Passover had come and gone! The Bible says that Herod was going to bring him forth AFTER Easter, it is referring the Pagan celebration of Easter, not the Passover. He was arrested after the Passover had actually occurred.

If this were the case why not use the Greek word for Easter? In any case you clearly don't understand that the word Passover relates to both a day AND a period of time.

ccchhhrrriiisss wrote:

Hi waltern...

My response would be that God has supernaturally preserved His Word, like He has promised us He would do. In this case, by the instruction #3 of the King.

I think that this is your argument -- regardless of what the evidence says.

It seems, at least to me, that this was a poorly translated word in the KJV translation. The source for the KJV literally says that the word is "paschal" (literally, "the passover"). So one might ask: Was the source part of God's promise to "preserve" His Word -- or was the eventual product (the KJV) the promise?

Or perhaps God's promise to preserve His Word has nothing to do with a written collection of 66 books (or more, if you use the original KJV). I wonder: What about all of those nations, languages and years in which there wasn't a KJV...or a Textus Receptus...etc...?

Walter's response to Ccchhhrrriiisss:

[b][color=0033FF]Since I am waiting for Philogos to answer my post by Bible Proof text, I will now address your post, Ccchhhrrriiisss.[/color][/b]

My post has nothing to do with a poor translation or anything. Please, sir, prove your position by Scripture instead of by condescension, insinuation and innunendo. This might work well in a college classroom with young adults designed to lead them away from one position and to another position that the professor supports,[u][b] but it has no value here.[/b][/u]

Please, prove the following incorrect, by Bible proof-text[u][b]---only then ccchhhrrriiisss will you be able to prove your position.[/b][/u]

[b]This was my post, please respond to it line by line with Scripture, (with no insinuation, innuendo, or condescension):[/b]

What Was Easter Originally? The word " Easter" is found one time in the entire authorized King James Bible:

Acts 12:1-7 (KJV)
"Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church. And he killed James the brother of John with the sword. And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people."

So here we have a situation in Acts chapter 12. Herod had just beheaded James, it made the Jews happy. Now Herod wanted to kill Peter also, but he wanted to wait until after "Easter" according to the King James Bible. Notice that the NIV bible has the word "Passover" instead of "Easter."

Scripture from the King James Bible proves that "Easter" is in fact, the proper word to use.

The word "Easter" here, does NOT refer to "Easter" as we know it today, nor does it refer to the word " Passover" as it is wrongly translated in all newer Bible versions.

Though many Christians celebrate "Easter" in remembrance of the resurrection, Easter was originally a pagan festival (etymology of your dictionary should confirm this), which is what Acts 12:4 refers to and not the Passover. We can determine this by looking at the passage.

The Webster's New World Dictionary gives the following etymology (origin and development of a word), for the word "Easter":

originally, name of pagan vernal [spring time] festival ALMOST COINCIDENT in date with paschal [Passover] festival of the church,

--Eastre, dawn goddess --Austro, dawn

In other words, Easter was originally a pagan festival celebrated in the spring time.

"Easter" is Only Translated Correctly in the King James Bible

The word, "Easter" has been incorrectly translated "Passover" in ALL Bible versions except for the authorized King James Bible.

How do we know this? The Bible proves it (the Bible is always its own prooftext). Notice again in the passage of Acts 12:1-4, King Herod killed James. When he saw that it pleased the Jews, he also took Peter. Notice that Herod took Peter DURING the DAYS OF UNLEAVENED BREAD and was going to bring him forth to the people AFTER Easter.

"In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD's passover. And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread." (Leviticus 23:5,6)

So we learn from this Scripture that the day of Passover fell on the 14th day of the first month, and then the "FEAST of UNLEAVENED BREAD" began upon the 15th day of the first month.

The days of unleavened bread came AFTER Passover! Acts 12:3 tells us that Peter was apprehended DURING the "days of unleavened bread." This means that the day of Passover had ALREADY occurred. "Easter" could not have been Passover, because Passover occurred BEFORE the days of unleavened bread. Passover had come and gone. Herod decided to bring Peter forth AFTER Easter. This is the sequence:

1. PASSOVER

2. DAYS OF UNLEAVENED BREAD

3. EASTER

Let's look at it from the book of Numbers as well:

Passover only comes once a year on one day, the 14th of Abib ( Num 28:16). After the Passover comes the days of unleavened bread (Numbers 28:17), extending from the fifteenth day through the twenty first day of Abib. So when Peter was arrested during the days of unleavened bread (Acts 12:3), Passover had come and gone! The Bible says that Herod was going to bring him forth AFTER Easter ( which had not come yet).

When the King James Bible says " EASTER" in Acts 12:4, it is correct; when the other versions say " PASSOVER" in Acts 12:4, they are incorrect. " Easter" in this passage is referring to a pagan festival (remember the etymology teaches that the pagan " Easter" is almost coincident with paschal (Passover)...

Just imagine what other "changes" to God's Spirit Breathed Word have been performed by the "textural critics", with their scissors and black markers. What a shame, yet many cannot see any difference, and even prefer the "newer" versions!

[b]Sincerely,

Walter[/b]

Well Ccchhhrrriiisss, I have learned to expect nothing more from you than what you continue to post, and that seems to be high on opinion and low to non-existent on Bible Scripture to support your opinions.

My challenge to you still stands. Prove to me, through scripture why the King James is wrong. Prove to all of us how Peter could be arrested during the feast of unleavened bread, that started on the 15th of Abib, and continued for seven days through the 21st of Abib, and then be turned over to the people by Herod at the Passover. The Passover HAD ALREADY OCCURRED ON THE 14TH OF ABIB, BEFORE THE FEAST OF UNLEAVED BREAD OCCURRED!

[b]The King James rightly translates this word as the pagan ceremony of easter, that was celebrated after the feast of unleavened bread, going back in history all the way to Babylon. [/b]

Was the pagan festival of Easter known at the this time in history? Were the Romans keeping Easter as a day of celebration?

This is what History has to say about this event:

The pagan festival of Easter, with its hot cross buns and Easter Sunday sunrise services was well known in ancient Babylon and Rome centuries before the events recorded in Acts 12.

[b]Let me quote a short passage about EASTER from Alexander Hislop's book The Two Babylons. (ISBN 0 7136 0470 0):
Quote: \t"Then look at Easter. What means the term Easter itself? It is not a Christian name. It bears its Chaldean origin on its forehead. Easter is nothing else than Astarte, one of the titles of Beltis, the QUEEN OF HEAVEN, whose name, as pronounced by the people of Nineveh, was evidently identical with that now in common use in this country. That name, as found by Layard on the Assyrian monuments, is Ishtar. The worship of Bel and Astarte was very early introduced into Britain, along with the Druids, "the priests of the groves" (page 103)[/b]
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No scholar doubts the fact that Easter is a pagan festival which came down from ancient times, long before the Christian era.

[b]The next question is: Did some Israelites keep Easter and worship the QUEEN OF HEAVEN? Did they bake hot cross buns for Ishtar - Easter? THE ANSWER, SURPRISINGLY, IS AGAIN--YES!

Ancient Israel worshipped THE QUEEN OF HEAVEN- ISHTAR and they honoured her each year with special cakes (buns) and drink offerings.[/b]

[b][color=0000CC]I quote Scripture, as prooftext for my position:

Jeremiah 7:18 \tThe children gather wood, and the fathers kindle the fire, and the women knead their dough, to make cakes to the QUEEN OF HEAVEN, and to pour out drink offerings unto other gods, that they may provoke me to anger.

Jeremiah 44:18 But since we left off to burn incense to the QUEEN OF HEAVEN, and to pour out drink offerings unto her, we have wanted all things, and have been consumed by the sword and by the famine. 19: And when we burned incense to the QUEEN OF HEAVEN, and poured out drink offerings unto her, did we make her cakes to worship her, and pour out drink offerings unto HER, without our men? 20: Then Jeremiah said unto all the people, to the men, and to the women, and to all the people which had given him that answer, saying, 21: The incense that ye burned in the cities of Judah, and in the streets of Jerusalem, ye, and your fathers, your kings, and your princes, and the people of the land, did not the LORD remember them, and came it not into his mind? 22: So that the LORD could no longer bear, because of the evil of your doings, and because of the ABOMINATIONS which ye have committed; therefore is your land a desolation, and an astonishment, and a curse, without an inhabitant, as at this day.
23: Because ye have burned incense, and because ye have sinned against the LORD, and have not obeyed the voice of the LORD, nor walked in his law, nor in his statutes, nor in his testimonies; therefore this evil is happened unto you, as at this day. 24: Moreover Jeremiah said unto all the people, and to all the women, Hear the word of the LORD, all Judah that are in the land of Egypt: 25: Thus saith the LORD of hosts, the God of Israel, saying; Ye and your wives have both spoken with your mouths, and fulfilled with your hand, saying, We will surely perform our vows that we have vowed, to burn incense to the queen of heaven, and to pour out drink offerings unto her: ye will surely accomplish your vows, and surely perform your vows.

Oh yes, many ancient Israelites kept Easter. Modern Israelis still do today. In summary we can say that when Herod, after the Passover and during the days of unleavened bread shut up Peter intending to bring him out after Easter, Herod meant EXACTLY WHAT THE KING JAMES VERSION IS SAYING. HE MEANT EASTER NOT PASSOVER WHICH HAD ALREADY COME AND GONE. THIS MEANS THAT EVERY TRANSLATION WHICH USES THE WORD PASSOVER IN ACTS 12:3-4 IS, STRICTLY SPEAKING, INCORRECT. EASTER IS THE CORRECT WORD AND THE KING JAMES USES IT.[/color][/b]

In conclusion, I challenge you to post Scripture instead of opinion TO REFUTE MY POST. OPINION WITHOUT THE PROOF OF SCRIPTURE IS NOTHING MORE THAN ERROR!

"Solo Scriptura"

Sincerely,

Walter

ccchhhrrriiisss wrote:
Waltern...

Brother, how can I prove something that already speaks for itself?!?

Delted

[b]

[color=000000]To Philogos:

You are pulling at straws, trying to prove the improvable. You either have no knowledge of the Old Testament and the Feasts of the Jews, or you are trying to prove your point having full knowledge of the Old Testament.

This is nothing more than a combination of two feasts--the Passover & the Feast of Unleavened Bread. In Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, Deuteronomy, Joshua, 2 Kings, 2 Chronicles, & Ezra the timing is clear of these two separate Feasts of the Lord. The Passover is celebrated on one day, the 14th of Abib (Tishre), the day that God led the Jews out of bondage in Egypt, the same day that Jesus Christ became our “Passover”. The Feast of Unleavened bread followed the Passover, starting on the 15th and continuing for 7 days through the 21st.

The Passover, established by God in Exodus 12: 1-14 is a one day event that was to be celebrated forever. This event (the Passover) was so important that God had the Jews change their calendar. The first month had always been Nissan, since the beginning of time. Now God commanded them to change the calendar to make the 7th month, Abib (Tishre) their first month. Since He led them out of Egypt by signs and wonders he never wanted them to forget this specific event. the Jews accomplished this by having two calendars—a Sacred calendar, starting with Abib and then continuing in order for a total of 12 months. They also continued their regular calendar, starting with Nissan, the month of creation, the first month.

In any event, you are incorrect. The Passover occurs on one day, and one day alone. The day? The 14th of Abib (Tishre), the day that God led the Jews out of Egypt with a mighty hand. It is also the same day that Jesus Christ was crucified for our sins, the day of Passover, the 14th of Abib (Tishre). He was crucified at the 3rd hour (9:00 A.M.), at the time of the MORNING SACRIFICE that had taken place at the Tabernacle, and later at the Temple since God commanded it in Exodus, and gave up the Ghost at the 9th hour (3:00 P.M.), the time of the evening sacrifice at the Temple.

Please check out the following for a full understanding of the Passover and when it was celebrated. Passover was commanded by God to ALWAYS be celebrated on the 14th of Abib (Tishre):

Exosus, Chapter 12; Leviticus 23:5-6; Numbers Chapter 9; Numbers Chapter 28; Numbers Chapter 23; Deuteronomy Chapter 16; Joshua, Chapter 5; 2nd Kings Chapter 23; Chronicles Chapter 35; Ezra Chapter 6

Christ is our Passover (1 Cor 1:5). Christ is our Firstfruits (1 Cor. 15:20).

Jesus Christ is the fulfillment of the Original Passover picture, given to us in the Old Testament. Christ is the fulfillment of the Firstfruits, given to us in the Old Testament. Christ was sacrificed on Passover, the 14th of Abib and He resurrected from the dead on the 17th of Abib, the day of the feast of Firstfruits. Also, on the 17th of Abib the Ark rested on the mountains of Arat: Genesis 8:4. And the ark rested in the seventh month, on the seventeenth day of the month, upon the mountains of Ararat.

(God changed the 7th month to the first month, when He brought the nation of Israel out of Egypt with a mighty hand on the 14th day of Abib, Passover, a day He commanded to be celebrated forever!) What is the work of the Christian? Our Work is to believe on Him who He has sent. We are commanded to rest in Him (Jesus Christ)-pictured by those who "rested" in the ark where God kept them safe- the ark- RUDDERLESS, and controlled by God HIMSELF.

Sincerely,

Walter

philologos wrote:

Please provide Biblical prooftext to your statement above that the word Passover related to both a day AND a period of time.

[color=0000FF] “In the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month, you shall observe [u]the Passover, a feast of seven days[/u]; unleavened bread shall be eaten. Ezek 45:21 NKJV

Now on the first day of the Feast of the Unleavened Bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying to Him, “Where do You want us to prepare for You to eat the Passover?” 18 And He said, “Go into the city to a certain man, and say to him, “The Teacher says, ‘My time is at hand; I will keep the Passover at your house with My disciples.” ’ ” Matt 26:17-18 NKJV

And it was the preparation of the passover, and about the sixth hour: and he saith unto the Jews, Behold your King! John 19:14 KJVS[/color]

You will see that Passover is used of the time of preparation, the meal itself and the period of 7 days of unleavened bread. This was the way the Jews used the word.