Why did Jesus say it had to be granted to a man to even be able to come to him?Could you please exegete this verse (John 6:65) for us?
[b]John 6[b]25.[b]26.[b]27.[b]28.[b]29.[b]30.[b]31.[b]32.[b]33.[b]34.[b]35.[b]36.[b]37.[b]38.[b]39.[b]40.[b]41.[b]42.[b]43.[b]44.[b]45.[b]46.[b]47.[b]48.[b]49.[b]50.[b]51.[b]52.[b]53.[b]54.[b]55.[b]56.[b]57.[b]58.[b]59.[b]60.[b]61.[b]62.[b]63.[b]64.[b]65.[b]66.[b]67.[b]68.[b]69.[b]70.[b]71.
You will notice a recurring theme throughout these passages. There is an emphasis here between God who draws men to Himself and those who believe. Yet, I do not believe this will clear up any disagreements; for this simple reason: no one here (I hope) disagrees that we are saved because God first loved us and sought to save us while we were yet sinners, that is, while we were enemies and contemners of God.
As I have said elsewhere concerning[b]Romans 9
16.
This verse may just as easily verify the understanding: If God had shown NO mercy whatsoever then we would very quickly conclude just how meaningless it would be to "will" and "run" (repent and believe). However, because God has shown mercy, He calls every man unto repentance through faith in Christ Jesus; so that none should perish and all might be reconciled unto Himself.
Which then came first: God drawing men unto Himself or man's belief?
Clearly God drawing men unto Himself. The distinction between us is that many here believe in "limited atonement" and others that God is seeking to save everyone.
The main difference I understand between these two positions is "limited atonement" implies that God was either unable or unwilling to save everyone -- hence the debate of arbitrariness in God's election & predestination. While, the latter, though it may be seen as if God were "ineffective" at bringing salvation to all men "if He indeed died for all men": you will also notice that every man's condemnation is without arbitraries. ie. "this is the condemnation, that light is come into the world," and thus, we either despise the light of men, who is Jesus Christ, or come to the light. Personally, I believe that Christ's propitiation being a "full atonement" does not require everyone to be saved; here is why:
[b]Luke 6[b]27.[b]28.[b]29.[b]30.[b]31.[b]32.[b]33.[b]34.[b]35.
What shall we say then? is God the same as heathen men? Did the Father send His Son expecting in return? Did He expect the same amount back to Himself? Does He treat all ungrateful and evil men just as He desires Himself to be treated? -- sovereignly redeeming a few and then turning over and leaving the rest to their sealed fate of eternal damnation? Does God give to everyone who asks? -- do we believe that sinners never ask God for mercy and grace to be saved?
The question then is: what constrains a sinner to be saved, much less, to desire to be saved? Some will answer it is because of the sovereign grace of God. And that is true. Then we ask: what is sovereign grace?
I believe this is where the debate lies. Personally, it is my belief that God's sovereign grace is no more than what may be described as His "common grace." If Jesus says, "I say to you who hear, love your enemies, do good to those who hate you, bless those who curse you, pray for those who mistreat you"; and again, Paul says, "Therefore if thine enemy hunger, feed him; if he thirst, give him drink: for in so doing thou shalt heap coals of fire on his head. Be not overcome of evil, but overcome evil with good."
Is God then good to some and evil towards the rest? Of course not; that is why we teach "common grace". Is common grace an ineffective grace (not tending towards men's salvation)? That is to say, is common grace not a part of the love or goodness of God? [b]For we read,[b]And again,
Is this not enough to condemn every man and is this not enough to save every man? and how much more through the revelation of Christ Jesus?
Do we honestly believe the love of God to be ineffective? Or, do we believe the love of God displayed in "common grace" as something less than and inferior to what we might call "effective grace," that is, "effective love"? If God is love then shall we say to those who are reserved unto judgment, "but He is an ineffective love for you," that is, God is something less than Himself towards those who are perishing. Either God is partial or God deals equally with all men. If we believe that God deals equally (impartially, [b]Matthew 22:16[b]John 3:18, 36
Concerning the Sovereignty of God and the "free-will" of man (insofar as "free" can be applied to creatures, for only God is truly free), please allow me to quote these two great theologians:
In a sermon titled, "A Defense of Calvinism," Charles Spurgeon has said, "For instance, I read in one Book of the Bible, "The Spirit and the bride say, Come. And let him that heareth say, Come. And let him that is athirst come. And whosoever will, let him take the water of life freely." Yet I am taught, in another part of the same inspired Word, that "it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy." I see, in one place, God in providence presiding over all, and yet I see, and I cannot help seeing, that man acts as he pleases, and that God has left his actions, in a great measure, to his own free-will. Now, if I were to declare that man was so free to act that there was no control of God over his actions, I should be driven very near to atheism; and if, on the other hand, I should declare that God so over-rules all things that man is not free enough to be responsible, I should be driven at once into Antinomianism or fatalism. That God predestines, and yet that man is responsible, are two facts that few can see clearly. They are believed to be inconsistent and contradictory to each other. If, then, I find taught in one part of the Bible that everything is foreordained, that is true; and if I find, in another Scripture, that man is responsible for all his actions, that is true; and it is only my folly that leads me to imagine that these two truths can ever contradict each other. I do not believe they can ever be welded into one upon any earthly anvil, but they certainly shall be one in eternity. They are two lines that are so nearly parallel, that the human mind which pursues them farthest will never discover that they converge, but they do converge, and they will meet somewhere in eternity, close to the throne of God, whence all truth doth spring."
A.W. Tozer similarly has said in his book "Knowledge of the Holy," in the 22nd chapter, titled, [i]The Sovereignty of God
The attempt to answer these questions has divided the Christian church neatly into two camps which have borne the names of two distinguished theologians, Jacobus Arminius and John Calvin. Most Christians are content to get into one camp or the other and deny either sovereignty to God or free will to man. It appears possible, however, to reconcile these two positions without doing violence to either, although the effort that follows may prove deficient to partisans of one camp or the other.
Here is my view: God sovereignly decreed that man should be free to exercise moral choice, and man from the beginning has fulfilled that decree by making his choice between good and evil. When he chooses to do evil, he does not thereby countervail the sovereign will of God but fulfills it, inasmuch as the eternal decree decided not which choice the man should make but that he should be free to make it. If in His absolute freedom God has willed to give man limited freedom, who is there to stay His hand or say,
'What doest thou?' Man’s will is free because God is sovereign. A God less than sovereign could not bestow moral freedom upon His creatures. He would be afraid to do so."
And that is a powerful statement: only a truly Sovereign God can bestow moral freedom upon His creatures and yet still remain Perfectly Sovereign. Wow. I don't know, I hear my brother Calvinists say how awesome the sovereignty of God is because He sovereignly regenerates sinners, that is to say, He overrides (changes) their moral freedom from choosing sin to choosing righteousness. But how much more sovereign is a God who can soften the hardened hearts of wicked sinners so that they would freely choose regeneration? Again, as Jesus said in His sermon on the mount, "For God Himself is kind to ungrateful and evil men," and again, "Recompense to no man evil for evil. Provide things honest in the sight of all men. If it be possible, as much as lieth in you, live peaceably with all men. Dearly beloved, avenge not yourselves, but rather give place unto wrath: for it is written, Vengeance is mine; I will repay, saith the Lord. Therefore if thine enemy hunger, feed him; if he thirst, give him drink: for in so doing thou shalt heap coals of fire on his head. Be not overcome of evil, but overcome evil with good." Therefore, I believe God overcomes evil with good, that is, His "common grace" is sufficient grace; and this all the more in the Light of Christ, the Eternal Son -- everyone who would despise unto death His common grace & love shall be, without excuse, truly worthy of eternal condemnation in the lake of fire.
