I have some questions too. i just finished organizing these questions today. I had them written down on cards over the last 6 months or so.
"Will the one who contends with the Almighty correct Him? Let him who accuses God answer Him!"
"Would you discredit My justice? Would you condemn Me to justify yourself?
"Then I myself will admit to you that your own right hand can save you." (Job 40:2;8;14)
Do you believe in a God who could save everyone but does not or do you believe in a God who should damn everyone but does not?
Is it possible for God to do something you don't like and still be a good and just God?
Does the palatability of any doctrine determine it's veracity?
Total Depravity:
Was it unfair for God to rest mankind's eternal destiny in the will of Adam by giving him a choice to eat of the forbidden fruit?
If it's unfair that God imputes the original sin of Adam to all men for no reason but their race is it unfair that God imputes the righteousness of Christ to some men for no reason but His grace?
If God cannot impute the original sin of Adam to all men, how can He impute the righteousness of the Last Adam to any man?
Why is the question always whether sinners CAN choose Christ and never why do sinners EVER choose Christ?
Is decisional regeneration dependent upon whether man's will is free or is it a question of whether man's will is good? (Jer 13:23)
Why is it so hard to believe that our free will can be limited by our ability, and our ability can be limited by our nature, and our nature is wholly corrupted by sin? (1Cor 2:14)
Is it fair for you to demand God to be fair according to your fallen notions of fairness? (Rom 9:14) Is it not fair to say that if God was fair to all sinners it would not fare well for you?
Unconditional Election:
Is it wrong for God to predestinate for some a conformity to Christ which others have no desire for anyways? (Rom 8:29; 3:11)
How do texts about God's universal love for all mankind nullify texts about His electing grace for all kinds of men? (John 3:16; 1Tim 2:4; Rev 5:9; Acts 13:48)
Is God's desire to preserve man's final self-determination greater than His desire to keep men from being unsaved?
Did God esteem His desire to have a world in which there are final self-determining people more highly than He esteemed His other desire that nobody be lost?
Does your cultural upbringing have any influence on who you are, the way you think, and the decisions you make? Do these influences God has allowed in your life have any bearing upon how you respond to the Gospel call if, in fact, you ever hear it?
Is it truly possible to make any decision unaffected by outside influences in our lives? Is God in control of our influences?
If God loves everybody in the exact same way, why doesn't He orchestrate all events, circumstances, influences and inclinations of all people everywhere in such a way as to equally compel them all to willfully become His sheep? (John 10:11; 10:26)
Does God know the future? Does He know what is required to persuade individuals to choose Christ? Does He exercise this persuasion upon all people equally customized to their varying inclinations?
Which is more unfair: for God to have to graciously regenerate people before they can willfully believe the Gospel or for God to create people within circumstances where they will never hear or have a chance to willfully believe the Gospel?
If God temporarily removes every outside influence, preconceived idea, personality trait, and psychological or mental malady in order that a person can make a completely neutral free will decision to choose Christ, why aren't more people in pagan nations saved?
If God gives a universal 50-50 chance for all people to choose Christ equally, shouldn't there be a 50-50 conversion rate?
If there is no other name (Jesus) under heaven by which people must be saved (Acts 4:12) then how can the unevangelized get to heaven?
What is the eternal destiny of the unevangelized?
Why aren't all people saved if it is God's desire to save all people?
Is there something more powerful than God in the universe that is usurping His will for all men to be saved?
If it's possible for God to will that a sinful act come to pass without willing it as an act of sin in Himself to achieve His sovereign purposes (ie. the crucifixion), what higher prerogative of God restrains His desired will to save all people?
Is there a greater will in God that supersedes His desire that all men repent and be saved?
Is the display of God's wrath in judgment against sin a good thing or a bad thing? Why does God desire to show His wrath?
Since God's decreed will (Rev13:8; Isa 53:10) was for Satan (1Sam 19:9) to inspire Judas' (John 17:12) betrayal (Matt 27:4) of Christ to be murdered (Exo 20:13; Acts 2:23; 4:27-28), could it be said that God is willing to allow that which He does not will (Lam 3:32-33) in order to accomplish that which He does will? (Rom 9:22-23; Eph 1:11)
Why is it that the only people who object to God's sovereignty in election are almost exclusively Christians? (Rom 9:19-24)
Irresistable Grace:
Will Christ save all of those that He intends to save or will He fail to save any person that He intends to save? (Acts 13:48)
What is the difference between you and others which caused you to choose Christ while they reject Him? (John 6:37; 10:26)
Is there anything that God did for you to bring about your salvation which He didn't do for those who reject the Gospel? (John 6:44; Acts 16:14)
How can you deny God's right and power to effectually call people to salvation and then pray for the lost?
If a sinner rejects the Gospel over and over again, and you ask God to open their heart to believe it, are you not asking Him to violate their free will?
If God answers your prayers to save someone, does He not violate their power of autonomous choice by working in them in response to you asking for them to be saved?
Why pray for people's salvation if God would be unjust in exercising selective sovereign influence upon their will in a more persuasive way than He does for individuals who have not been prayed for?
Definite Atonement:
Does God require unsaved people to pay for sin in hell that Jesus already paid for on the cross?
Did Jesus atone for the sins of those who died and went to hell before He came into the world?
If Jesus, the good shepherd, laid down His life for the sheep, why isn't every individual in the world one of His sheep? (John 10:11; 10:26)
Did Jesus die for the sin of unbelief in which Christians lived before they believed? If so, what about the sin of unbelief of people who never believe?
If people go to hell because they don't believe in Christ (John 3:18), and unbelief is a sin, and Christ died for all sin everywhere, then why do people go to hell if they don't believe in Christ?
Are people sanctified in hell or is their sin of unbelief perpetual for eternity? If so, how could Jesus die for a sin that does not end after the death of the sinner?
If unbelievers continue in unbelief (rejection of Christ) for eternity in hell, how could Jesus have paid for a sin that has no ending point?
Are sins atoned for by Christ in the past or are they atoned for at the moment of the conditional exercising of faith on the part of the believer?
Is it unfair that God limited the atonement to fallen man but not fallen angels?
Was God unjust for not providing a savior for fallen angels? (2Pet 2:4)
Do angels have free will?
Preservation of the Saints:
Does God take away the freedom to choose or reject Him after we become believers? Did we have that freedom to begin with?
If man has completely neutral liberty to choose salvation, are Christians also free to choose to become unsaved?
How can a Christian temporarily have eternal life? If eternal life is present, is it not eternally present for every person who has it without exception? How can a person presently have eternal life and then cease to have it after they die? Doesn't eternal life begin the moment you have it? If you can loose it, how can you possibly have it to begin with?