does God get glory over the ones he ordained to eternally perish in hell when even though in their free will they chose not God but the same would be with the saved if it was not for his grace. Why would God want to do that, why is God angry at many in the Bible if he has made it that his grace would not be with the people? Can God have glory in ordaining the damned in hell and using evil for his glory? God is the cause of evil and has ordained it but is not the author of it, can anyone explain that for me?
Hi Bible4Life. That is a good question. First of all, it is important to understand that GOD does not actively ordain people to hell. He predestines people to be conformed to the image of HIS Son (Romans 8:29). He leaves others in their free will choices and because of their moral depravity they reject any notion of being conformed to the image of CHRIST. The problem is everyone looks at this issue as a heaven and hell thing. It is a conformity to CHRIST thing. Heaven is just a by-product of conformity to the image of CHRIST.
It all comes down to GOD. He does not approve of murder and yet HE ordained to have CHRIST be murdered. What was the higher prerogative of GOD in allowing CHRIST to be crucified which superseded His desire that people not be murdered? It was to bring Himself glory in redeeming a people for Himself when they ALL deserve nothing but His judgment.
Why did He do that? To show the exceeding riches of His mercy and grace. He also showed His absolute sovereignty by accomplishing the greatest good (redemption) by turning on its head the greatest evil (the crucifying of Christ at the hands of wicked men):
ACTS 1:23 This man was handed over to you by God's set purpose and foreknowledge; and you, with the help of wicked men, put him to death by nailing him to the cross.
Now we know that GOD desires that none should perish and He takes no pleasure in the death of the wicked but at the same time we know He is sovereign and fully capable of saving every person who ever lived. Why does He save anyone? He doesn't tell us. It's a mystery. All we know is that it is so "His purpose in election might stand"(Rom 9:11)
EPH 1:4 For he chose us in him before the creation of the world to be holy and blameless in his sight. In love 5he predestined us to be adopted as his sons through Jesus Christ, in accordance with his pleasure and will— 6to the praise of his glorious grace...
Another reason why He did this is because it is in accordance with His pleasure and will to the praise of His glorious grace. That's it. That's all He chooses to tell us about His reason. That's good enough for me. I just think of it and say THANK YOU FATHER!
But what brings Him greater glory than saving every person who ever lived? well, we know that saving people brings Him praise for His glorious grace... on the flip side, showing His justice in wrath also brings Him praise... This is what bothers people. They get upset because God wants to show His wrath. He has a good reason for it and those who receive it all deserve it. This is why when the common objector in Romans 9 keeps accusing God of injustice, the Word finally says in a manner reminiscent of God's answer to Job's accusations,
"WHO ARE YOU O MAN TO ANSWER BACK TO GOD?" "Shall what is formed say to him who formed it, 'Why did you make me like this?' "Does not the potter have the right to make out of the same lump of clay some pottery for noble purposes and some for common use?
What if God, choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction? What if he did this to make the riches of his glory known to the objects of his mercy, whom HE prepared IN ADVANCE for glory— even us, whom he also called, not only from the Jews but also from the Gentiles?
Notice in the parallel passages regarding those prepared for destruction and those who HE prepared IN ADVANCE (words in CAPS not in both but only in second parallel passage).
You see, HE prepared us IN ADVANCE for glory but the others are merely prepared but not in any active sense by God but merely by virtue of their sinful existence.
notice the passage says "What if God, CHOOSING TO SHOW HIS WRATH bore with much patience the objects of His wrath...
Do you have a problem with God wanting to show His wrath? He wants to do it because it brings Him glory and it will bring Him glory even MORE than if He fulfilled His desire that none should perish and all men everywhere be saved and come to a knowledge of the truth.(2Pet 3:9, 1Tim 2:4)
So this is about God. If we raise the same objections as the objector in Romans 9, "Is there injustice with God?""Who then can find fault, for who has resisted His will?", then we know we are interpreting Paul's reasoning in Romans 9 correctly and we better get on the OTHER SIDE of the argument because we don't want to stand before God one day and hear him say, "WHO ARE YOU O MAN THAT ANSWERS BACK TO GOD?"
In the end, there is mystery from our finite perspective to WHY God has ordained things as they are and HOW He works all things together after the council of His will and in the end they will bring Him maximum glory. All I know is He is sovereign and I rejoice in His mercy and one day, regardless of my perspective down here, I will one day understand and rejoice in His justice and in Him "wanting to show His wrath" displaying the full range of His character. I think if we truely understood how sinful we are, we would rejoice in Him pouring His wrath out ON US since we would be so disgusted with our own selves.
Our problem is we don't see things from God's perspective and therefore, we either take Him at His word and trust He will do right or we "answer back to God" as the objector in Romans 9 did.
I opt for trusting in His goodness even if I do not fully understand the mystery of all of His ways. I recommend you do the same and then THANK HIM for showing such mercy in saving you. What a wonderful and glorious God we serve.