Dear imnowhere,
Let me begin by responding to your last question, with particular emphasis on the two verses you mentioned. I included some of their accompanying verses below, in order to clarify their meanings.
ABOUT REPENTANCE:
2Ti 2:24 And the Lord’s servant must not quarrel; instead, he must be kind to everyone, able to teach, not resentful. g 2Ti 2:25 Those who oppose him he must gently instruct, in the hope that God will grant them repentance leading them to a knowledge of the truth, h 2Ti 2:26 and that they will come to their senses and escape from the trap of the devil, i who has taken them captive to do his will.
Also:
Ac 5:31 God exalted him to his own right hand as Prince and Savior that he might give repentance and forgiveness of sins to Israel.
Repentance is of God, and is one of the marks of a true believer. It comes through the Holy Spirit, who enables the believer to realize the greatness and holiness of God as compared to his own sinfulness (and much more), thus leading the believer into repentance.
ABOUT FAITH:
Phil 1:27-30 "Whatever happens, conduct yourselves in a manner worthy of the gospel of Christ. Then, whether I come and see you or only hear about you in my absence, I will know that you stand firm in one spirit, contending as one man for the faith of the gospel without being frightened in any way by those who oppose you. This is a sign to them that they will be destroyed, but that you will be saved—and that by God. For it has been granted to you o on behalf of Christ not only to believe on him, but also to suffer for him, since you are going through the same struggle you saw I had, and now hear that I still have."
In this passage, Paul is speaking to Philippian believers and the subject of the 29th verse is not believing (because they are already believers in Christ) but suffering for Christ, a calling they share with Paul, and which is re-emphasized in the last part of the sentence. One cannot deduce from this that the act of believing in God is not of man's free will.
There is an abundance of verses in the Bible that clearly indicate that faith (believing) in God is initially a freewill act of man. However, once the door to a man's heart is opened through his faith, God, through the Holy Spirit, can move in him to strengthen that faith. I have listed some of these verses below.
Rev 3:20 Here I am! I stand at the door and knock. If anyone HEARS my voice and OPENS the door, I will come in and eat with him, and he with me.
Gal 2:16 know that a man is not justified by observing the law, but by faith in Jesus Christ. So we, too, have PUT OUR FAITH in Christ Jesus that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by observing the law, because by observing the law no one will be justified.
Jn 6:28-29 Then they asked him, “WHAT MUST WE DO to do the works God requires?” Jesus answered, “The work of God is this: TO BELIEVE in the one he has sent.”
Jn 12:44 Then Jesus cried out, “WHEN A MAN BELIEVES IN ME, he does not believe in me only, but in the one who sent me.
Ac 16:30-31 He then brought them out and asked, “Sirs, WHAT MUST I DO to be saved?” They replied, “BELIEVE IN THE LORD JESUS, and you will be saved —you and your household.”
1Jn 3:23 And this is his command: TO BELIEVE IN THE NAME OF HIS SON, Jesus Christ, and to love one another as he commanded us.
Jn 3:16-18 “For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that WHOEVER BELIEVES in him shall not perish but have eternal life. For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him. WHOEVER BELIEVES in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because he has not believed in the name of God’s one and only Son."
RESPONSE TO OTHER POSTS IN THIS THREAD:
There are a few other posts in this thread that seem to promote the idea that man cannot believe in God of his own free will. I think this is an erroneous concept, and very dangerous and possibly disabling to those who have yet to believe in God. For, although God wants us to believe, and will work things so that we are led to believe, we must understand that the decision to believe and accept his gift of grace remains ours. They referred to some Bible verses, and in responding I quote those same verses from the New International Version (NIV).
Eph 2:8 For it is by grace you have been saved, through faith —and this not from yourselves, it is the gift of God— not by works, so that no one can boast.
Comment: The thing that is "not from yourselves" is the grace of salvation, not the faith through which it was accepted. The "through faith" qualifying phrase makes it clear that the grace of salvation requires your faith for that gift to be yours. Note that the meaning of the word grace is "the freely given, unmerited favor and love of God", which ties in with the word gift in the latter part of the verse.
Ro 3:22 "This righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe."
Gal 2:16 "know that a man is not justified by observing the law, but by faith in Jesus Christ. So we, too, have put our faith in Christ Jesus that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by observing the law, because by observing the law no one will be justified."
Gal 2:20 "I have been crucified with Christ and I no longer live, but Christ lives in me. The life I live in the body, I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me."
Comments: This comment pertains to the last three verses quoted, because the misunderstanding seems to arise from the same problem. In all of them, the phrase "faith IN Jesus" or "faith IN the Son of God" in NIV, is written as "faith OF Jesus" in the KJV, thus creating confusion as to the source of such faith.
It is not my desire to argue for or against different Bible translations, but it seems unavoidable here in order to clarify the meaning of God's word. So I apologize beforehand to those who love the KJV for any grief this may cause.
The King James Version (KJV) of the Bible has been around for a long time, thus many are accustomed to it and attached to its charming and archaic vocabulary and phrasing. However, an objective review of its history will reveal that the KJV was not translated directly from the ancient texts written in Hebrew, Aramaic, Greek and Latin, which are considered the most accurate copies of God's inspired word. The KJV was written in 17th century English, translated mainly from the Bishop's Bible, which was produced by the Church of England in the 16th century. The Bishop's Bible borrowed heavily from the "Great Bible" of 1539, which then was the only authorized version for Anglican worship. The "Great Bible" was not taken directly from the more ancient texts, but mainly from the Latin Vulgate. Thus we see that there are two areas of concern with the KJV:
1) The language itself is about 300 years old and very different from modern day English. Word meanings, the use of prepositions, and sentence construction can be very different, leading to possible misinterpretation by today's readers.
2) Possible inaccuracies in content due to the intervening translations between the KJV and the ancient manuscripts (Latin Vulgate, Great Bible, Bishop's Bible).
On the other hand, the NIV was written in modern English, making misinterpretation less likely for today's readers. The NIV was completed around 1980. It was produced by an international group of known Biblical scholars and translators from six countries and more than 20 different denominations. It was sourced directly from the ancient texts in order to be as accurate as possible.
Thus, for the last three verses on faith quoted above, I believe the NIV version to be the more accurate translation.