There are many threads on this forum on Bible translations. [b]I do not want to open the discussion again
HOWEVER
I recently heard that [u]some
Question #1: Is this true? Have others noticed this in their Bible translations.
The speaker was preaching through Hebrews and was not, did not in the series, speak about translations. It was a aside to help congregation members understand why what he read from the pulpit might not be identical to what they might see in their Bible.
The reason given was that, the writer of Hebrews, was using the Septuagint. That was the writer's text for the Old Testament. Thus if the translation you are using is based on the Septuagint there will be no difference, and if not there will be differences. I am talking about differences in OT quotes in Hebrews compared to the passage itself in the OT of that particular Bible.
Question #2: It it true that Hebrews uses the Septuagint?
If these are true, it could have a bearing on all the debate regarding translations: Hebrews is part of the Bible (met criteria). The writer used a specific OT source document (Septuagint). The thought came to me this could be a reason, [u]coming up out of the Bible
Maybe the preacher was wrong in this information. The expository sermons were on target.
