If a Man and Woman divorce. And then re-marry (someone else)where does that leave them. If they have asked for forgivness, will God forgive them or are they in adultery until the end of their life. Would God not Forgive them?
Greetings MityDisciple
I think you will find that some here have different understanding on this topic, but that most do agree that the Lord does hate divorce and if at all possible the marriage should always try to be saved. I know this is not a direct answer to your question and I am not sure that at this time I have one for you myself except to tell you to pray and seek God on this.
There are many threads on this topic also that if you do a search you will be able to read over and then meditate on things shared and glean what the Lord would have for you.
Sorry I was not more help
God bless
mj
Boy, this is a hot topic button for many! I believe that God judges our hearts and motives. Many can and will quote the exact letter of the law (or word) about divorce but it's by His Spirit and His mercy alone that we stand or fall.
I personally do not believe a person can remarry before or after asking for forgiveness, receive it and then be considered living in adultery the rest of their lives. That just doesn't sound logical. Again, God judges our motives as well as our hearts (b/c our motives are in our hearts).
If you are wanting to know about it so you can judge someone else... [b]don't
If you are wanting to know b/c your marriage is in trouble... don't go there either! Do all you know to do and then stand and see the salvation of the Lord.
If you go over to the left column and choose topic... I think that's just for sermons... (A search function to search topics of discussions would sure be nice at a time like this (wink wink Greg!))!! I guess you will just have to scroll through the old threads to find a few about divorce to see just how heated this topic can get!
God bless you in your search,
MityDisciple asks,
"If a Man and Woman divorce. And then re-marry (someone else)where does that leave them. If they have asked for forgivness, will God forgive them or are they in adultery until the end of their life. Would God not Forgive them?"
My reply to the above:
Man was not made for marriage but marriage for man. The reversal of these leads to bondage,sin and unbiblical conclusions.
One such unbiblical conclusion being that marriage between a man and a woman is indissoluble. Such view being unbiblical, it may be called the traditional or Roman view, also known as the 'sacramental view'. This view is held by some. But this is not the biblical teaching.
Marriage is not a sacrament as Rome teaches. Marriage is a covenant as the Bible teaches. A biblical and therefore lawful divorce ends the marriage covenant.
The christian man who compiled the english dictionary in his 1828 edition states under 'divorce',
" 1. A legal dissolution of the bonds of matrimony, or the separation of husband and wife by a judicial sentence. This is properly called a divorce, and called technically, divorce a vinculo matrimonii...4. The sentence or writing by which marriage is dissolved."
Mr. Webster did not come to his conclusions rashly as he was a studious man who searched both the scriptures and also the meanings of words from their roots. He also checked several other languages which had translated a word before giving it its definition.
Deut. 22:13-19 and Deut. 22:28,29 are the only two circumstances in the law where we read that a man was prohibited from divorcing his wife.
"Faithful" Abraham (Gal. 3:9) divorced his wife at the command of God.(Gen. 21:10-14 and Gal. 4:30).
God Himself is said to have lawfully divorced His people,He had 'given her a bill of divorce' (Jer. 3:8). He goes on to say of her that, 'she is not my wife,neither am I her husband' (Hosea 2:2).
And God(the Son) in the flesh did not come to abolish His Father's Law.
There are many who erroneously conclude and believe that Jesus changed the law on divorce under the New Covenant. "But we know that the law is good, if a man uses it lawfully." (1 Tim. 1:8) But there are many, "wishing to be teachers of law, neither understanding what they say, nor about that which they confidently affirm" (1 Tim. 1:7). "So indeed the Law is holy, and the commandment holy and just and good" (Rom. 7:12).
To those who'd pit the spirit of the Law against the Word written, the same verses above apply to you. We do not serve a divided Trinity. These three(The Father,The Word,The Spirit) agree and are in one mind. It is the Spirit which gives understanding and the ability to correctly interpret the Law of God which is the Word of God Who became flesh and tabernacled among us.
He said,in full agreement with His Father,
Matthew 5:31 It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away (Strong's # 630) his wife , let him give her a writing of divorcement (Strong's # 647) Matthew 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away (Strong's # 630) his wife , saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery : and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced (Strong's # 630) committeth adultery.
Strong's number 630 (apoluo) does not mean divorce, but separate. Strong's number 647 (apostasion) means divorce.
This verse should read:
Matthew 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife , saving for the cause of fornication , causeth her to commit adultery : and whosoever shall marry her that is put away committeth adultery.
If a lawful divorce had been secured this woman nor the man who married her would be guilty of adultery.
Even so,such would not excuse nor justify the sin of covenant breaking which led up to and resulted in the lawful divorce.
The Law of God regarding divorce is still His merciful provision for some, as well as a judgement against those covenant breakers who persist in impenitence and hardness of heart.
On Matt. 5:31,32 these comments are helpful,
"With respect to the translation of Christ's answer commentators differ rather widely, particularly with respect to the words generally translated 'causeth her to commit adultery' (A.V.) or 'maketh her an adulteress' (A.R.V.,R.S.V.). The reader must often have wondered how the act whereby the husband divorces his innocent wife could make her an adulteress! As if the disgrace of having been unjustly rejected by her husband and being forced to face the struggle of life alone were not enough, must she now in addition be branded an 'adulteress'? In reply, it is generally pointed out that the statement when thus read is being misinterpreted. It must be read proleptically [i.e. the anticipation and answering of an objection or argument before one's opponent has put it forward]: she is called an adulteress because she may easily become one. Will the average reader actually so interpret the words, `Every one that putteth away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, maketh her an adulteress'? Is not the real solution a better rendering of the original? The Greek, by using the passive voice of the verb, states not what the woman becomes or what she does but what she undergoes, suffers, is exposed to. She suffers wrong. He does wrong. To be sure, she herself also may become guilty, but that is not the point which Jesus is emphasizing. Far better, it would seem to me, is therefore the translation, `Whoever divorces his wife except on the basis of infidelity exposes her to adultery,' or something similar." (Hendriksen)
R. C. H. Lenski's translation of the phrase is: "Brings about that she is stigmatized as adulterous; and he who shall marry her that has been released is stigmatized as adulterous."
The 'Certificate of Divorce' protected the woman from such stigmatization as well as making it lawful to be married to another man and not be an adulterous.
There are but two states persons are known to be in in the Bible where this issue is concerned. One is either married or unmarried.
To those who say no re-marriage unless the first spouse be physically dead, do not know the Law of God nor that of His Christ.
They must answer the question, "What is a lawful divorce and what does it do?" ,according to the Scriptures. Which question they're unable to answer due to their unbiblical Roman sacramental view of indissolubility.
It is a form of penance for past sins this view promotes. God forbid we return to Rome! It is an attempt of sorts to atone for the sins of the estranged mate. It is God, and God alone that forgives sins.
May those who have suffered divorce not be condemned by those who profess Christ and say the bible teaches such confusion.
One may choose not to remarry with God's blessing. Another may choose to remarry and have God's blessing,if they marry IN THE LORD.
None ought to bind the consciences of others in this matter. We all must have our conscience be bound to the WORD of GOD alone.
True it is that divorce is the result of sin.
But it is not true to say that divorce is sin.
True it is that death is the result of sin.
But none would argue that death is sin.
by savannah on 2010/1/12
True it is that divorce is the result of sin.
But it is not true to say that divorce is sin.
God bless you,
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