Jesus Christ said "Whoever shall put away his wife, except for the cause of fornication, causes her to commit adultery: and he that marries her that is divorced commits adultery". -Matt 5:32 Paul said "The woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he lives; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband. So then if, while her husband lives, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adultress"-Rom.7:2,3 Again Paul says in 1 Cor.7:39 "The wife is bound by the law as long as her husband lives; but if her husband be dead, she is at liberty to be married to whom she will; only in the Lord". John the Baptist told Herod "It is not lawful for you to have your brothers wife". Mark 5:18 These words to me all seem to be straightforward and easy to be understood. If a person read the above statements and came to the conclusion that no man should marry any woman who has been previously married while the previous husband is still alive,I would think that they would be understanding exactly what God intended for us to understand when he inspired these words to be written. It seems that few heed this doctrine. For some reason which is a mystery to me it is perfectly acceptable in modern protestant Christianity for a man and woman to be married while the womans previous husband is still alive. The word does say to rightly divide the word of truth and I know there are cases in the word where it says one thing in one place and yet in another place there is another scripture that qualifies and sheds more light on the exact meaning of the verse. Here then is my question. What does the word of God say about marrying her that is divorced? Are there some qualifying scriptures that would make the above scriptures clearer? Jesus does say in Matt 5:32 "except for the cause of fornication". Whose fornication? It would seem that he is saying that if a man or woman is unfaithful to their spouse then their partners are justified in seeking divorce and that they will no longer be liable for what the other one does. However the injured in this case has been put away and it would seem, according to Jesus that to remarry would constitute adultery. In Matt 5:32 where he says " Whoever puts away his wife except for the cause of fornication causes her to commit adultery". Surely he is not saying that if you are sexually faithful to your wife but divorce her and she remarries then you have caused her to commit adultery but, if you are sexually unfaithful then put her away then she is free to marry and you didn't cause her to commit adultery. That doesn't make much sense. In 1 Cor.7:15 Paul says "If the unbelieving depart, let him depart, A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God has called us to peace". This could be understood to mean that a Christian is allowed to remarry if their unbelieving husband/wife depart. So that would boil down to this: If a man or woman leaves their husband/wife then they are not abiding in the doctrine of Christ and are not real Christians but unbelievers. If one takes that view then all Christians are exempt from Matt.5:32, Rom.7:2,3 and 1 Cor 7:39 that says that a man or woman who remarry after divorce commit adultery and that a woman is bound by the law to stay married to her husband as long as he lives. That doesn't make much sense either. I have also heard said in the case of a person who is married to a divorced woman and then becomes a Christian - "Let every man abide in the same calling wherein he was called" 1 Cor 7:20. and again 1 Cor. 7:24 "Let every man wherein he is is called, therein abide with God". Lets try to apply this to the case of John the Baptist and Herod. John reproved Herod for being married to another mans wife (in this case his brothers). What if Herod wanted to become Jesus disciple, wouldn't he need to put away Herodias according to Moses, John, and Jesus and stop committing adultery or should he profess Christianity and abide in the calling wherein he was called and keep on living in adultery? Just doesn't make sense. All of these justifications for being married to someone whose previous spouse is still alive seem pretty flimsy to me. So will someone please enlighten me as to what the deal is with the current state of marriage and divorce in the church today? Maybe I don't understand exactly what the Lord is teaching with these verses or maybe there are some other verses that I am overlooking that would make things make more sense. I have no formal bible training but I do read the bible prayerfully and seek understanding as to how it is that God wants us to live. I tremble to think that perhaps I am correct in this matter, but what would that mean? It would mean that people would need to be taking radical action and departing from spouses that have been married before. It is interesting to note that Matt. 5:32 comes immediately after Jesus counsels us to take radical action to get sin out of our lives even if it comes to plucking out our own eyes or cutting off our own hands -Matt. 5-29,30. It would certainly give new meaning to 2 Cor.6:17 Come out from among them and be separate says the Lord. Almost every church would have members of the congregation who paid a very weighty price (ended adulterous relationship with their wife/husband) to follow Jesus. In our concept of Christianity today this may seem strange, but look at what they did in the old days for the Kingdom of God: Abraham left Ur and offered up Isaac, Moses left Egypt and all of its riches, Ezra 10:3 says the Jews made a covenant with God and put away all of their strange wives, and how about Jepthah (Judges 11) who swore to his own hurt and changed not when he had to offer his own daughter as a burnt offering, but there he is in Hebrews 11 listed as a mighty man of faith. Jesus did say to count the cost of following him and that no man could be his disciple unless he hated his father, mother, wife, child, brother, and sister. Again Jesus said "No man has left wife for the kingdom of Gods sake". What was he talking about there, extended missionary work? Perhaps so, but could this issue of adultery also be part of what he was talking about? If I knew for certain the answer to these questions I would have no need to post this question. The bible seems clear to me, but on the other hand most spiritual leaders sound no warning on this subject so maybe I am missing something somewhere. I have only made brief arguments here and I know there is much room for elaboration. I remember taking a survey here at sermon-index a while back about bible reading and I noticed at that time that about half the people that took the survey had read the bible through 2 times or more. I thought this might be a good place to get some answers on this matter. I would appreciate any thoughtful replies. Thank you.
