https://www.sermonindex.net/modules/newbb/viewtopic.php?topic_id=36273&forum=36&3
(note the 3rd and 4th posts)
The above thread page will show that i am hardly immune from speaking and writing wrong things. That thread was an issue of stating an opinion having no ground in history or Biblical context. The information renouncer wrote was already known before he wrote it, yet foolishly i spouted off something that detracted from, rather than added to proper knowledge surrounding those scriptures.
Though Travis is strongly disagreed with about Law -vs- New Covenant, which will be touched on in response, to me it seemed this thread was going in the wrong direction.
( T, No offense intended at all. Maybe through this in the upcoming year-end awards ceremony, i'll wrest the Dunderhead Sweepstakes trophy. )
Ten years ago, Travis and i would have walked hand in hand over this issue.
(BTW T, today a brother in Christ from H.S. was located on the web, and he's heading up RHEMA in Australia. )
reformer,
Living in an autonomous throwaway society, people do not really understand what covenant entails. Rather, the closest many can relate it to is a contract with loopholes and escape clauses; but the only escape clause in human with human covenant's is most to be death of both you and all your relatives. Covenants once established are never abolished. They are supposed to be regarded as an unbreakable life-for-life promise giving anything and if called for even your very existence.
With God, this is exactly how He looks at and fulfills His covenant(s), because:
He does not lie,
He does not change,
even as He is eternal and immortal.
Hebrews is only talking about the metathesis --(a transition to the source of the very same unchanged theme)-- from the Levitical way of doing things. The book of Hebrewa speaks nothing about anything being abolished.
Paul never ever said the law was abolished. Jesus declared, "I did not come to abolish the law or the prophets. . . Until heaven and earth pass away, nothing in any way shall pass away from the law until everything is fulfilled ," (Mt. 5.17-18). Paul would be calling Jesus a liar if he were to claim the law was abolished.
When i used to believe and say such, i never really understood i was:
disregarding the heart of what Paul is really teaching,
calling Paul a liar,
and calling Jesus a liar in the process.
If Peter's following statement of Paul's teaching was true then, how much more true now:
"...15 And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you; 16 As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood. . ."
Paul never talked about the law being abolished, but instead said things about the law and God's commandments like:
1. "Wherefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good . . . for we know that the law is spiritual. . ." (Rom. 7.12, 14)
2. ". . .God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: that the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit . . . Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be. (Rom. 8.3-4, 7)
3. "Circumcision is nothing, and uncircumcision is nothing, but the keeping of the commandments of God. (I Cor. 7.19)
All the comments on various study resources and lingual assimulation are profitable.
i'll add that your basic Strong's only provided root words and not tenses, genders, etc. . .and in fact not all of them are there. Vine's is like an extremely abridged version of word definitions.
With or without knowledge of the archaic languages, here are the most helpful keys in further knowing what a scriptural text is saying:
(a brief synopsis)
Communing with God's Spirit and researching historic/cultural context are a good starting point. From here, the Bible will always interpret itself. Read what is before and after each chosen passage along with the chosen text many times. Then, by working from the simple to the complex, you can stay on track. Through the use of the passages textual context and other passages associated in principle or as alternate accounts, the emphasis is clarified. Cross referencing also gives the bigger picture.
Over 90% of the time, the meaning of any chosen text of scripture--and this is what will help guide you in your questions-- is found in the verbs. Look to the controlling verb(s) around which the chosen passage progresses, because here is where the meaning lies.
About your initial post, it was wondered if you might possibly be asking the wrong question. Watching this thread progress throughout the day, things seemed to go off track.
(Either that, or i am.)
Anyway, in response to your initial post, the subject of the chapter is ritual purity. In this verse Jesus was clarifying that the written Torah is the needful -vs- the oral torah-->(Gemara + Mishna = Talmud). Jesus was basically saying that purity is neither ritual nor is it physical, but purity is from the heart.
(There is much more to this than what is being examined, because the washing of hands wasn't done towards cleansing but rather was a humanly contrived traditional proxy ritual relative to Levitical ordinances. )
This event happened in the promised land amongst Jews who were participants of Jesus discourse in Mark 7. It is under the Mosaic Law of God's first covenant with the children of Israel, so naturally it is in reference to kosher food and has nothing to do with food that is treif. Jesus made it clear ritual was not an issue in the matter of food.
The Greek word "broma" does not distinguish between clean and unclean foods.
The last phrase of the verse has a participle clause that is just hanging there. If the Greek is read according to it's rules of grammar, i.e. syntax, one can see it is the conclusion of one complete statement:
[LITERALLY RENDERED]
--beginning with "He says" (KJV = "And he saith") (v.18)
--ending with "cleansing all the foods." (v. 19)
Because the word "cleansing" in Kione is in the nominative masculine form, in affiliation with the type of word for "He says" in v.18, USUALLY this forms one statement, and that dangling end clause (by the rules of English grammar) need not be considered a comment at all in Greek vernacular.
Agapeo,
gregg