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Gen 6:1-4 (Sons of God) Men or Angels?

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luke673 Sep 19, 2011

I have done a study on this and thought that i had it down right but something a pastor brought up at church tonight raises my thinking. I had heard people say that these verses where being referenced to angles but i always dismissed it because of what jesus said about angels where neither married or giving in marriage. I beleived that it was a reference to the sons of God meaning the people of God. and the daughters of men meaning the world. he gave some references to the book of Job saying that when it says that the sons of God came before God meant agles but why couldnt it have been people gone on to be with the lord? so i dismissed that too. the only verse that holds me up on this thought is in numbers 13:33 it gives reference to the nephilium again and they should have been distroyed in Noahs flood so im kinda stuck on that one. maybe he is right maybe it was fallin agles and they had relations with weman before and after the flood. I dont know. I always look to Christ examples and he says that they dont marry so why would they need reproductive orgins? any how im no big theologian im just a simple christian trying to study the word and i know there are pastors and teachers that know more than me. please give me your insight on this and let me know what you think. thank you


God bless

S
Sree Sep 19, 2011

I read the verse on Jesus refering to Angles that do not marry. Those are angles that are in heaven. But when they are cast on earth they are like us, created in God's own image by God himself and can reproduce with any being like how we can.
This is just my understanding, but I could be wrong.

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Pandarus Sep 19, 2011

Luke 673, Go to the audio sermons section and check out some of Chuck Missler's stuff. He's right up on this.

Also try his site at khouse.org

Good luck.

C
Christinyou Sep 19, 2011

"""Re: Gen 6:1-4 (Sons of God) Men or Angels?
by Sree on 2011/9/18 17:35:34

I read the verse on Jesus refering to Angles that do not marry. Those are angles that are in heaven. But when they are cast on earth they are like us, created in God's own image by God himself and can reproduce with any being like how we can.
This is just my understanding, but I could be wrong."""

God's Angels or Satans'?

Then do these angels die like us and can they be saved by being born again?

D
DesertRose Sep 19, 2011

"Genesis 6:1-4 refers to the sons of God and the daughters of men. There have been several suggestions as to who the sons of God were and why the children they had with daughters of men grew into a race of giants (that is what the word Nephilim seems to indicate).

The three primary views on the identity of the sons of God are 1) they were fallen angels, 2) they were powerful human rulers, or 3) they were godly descendants of Seth intermarrying with wicked descendants of Cain. Giving weight to the first theory is the fact that in the Old Testament​ the phrase “sons of God” always refers to angels (Job 1:6; 2:1; 38:7). A potential problem with this is in Matthew 22:30, which indicates that angels do not marry. The Bible​ gives us no reason to believe that angels have a gender or are able to reproduce. The other two views do not present this problem.

The weakness of views 2) and 3) is that ordinary human males marrying ordinary human females does not account for why the offspring were “giants” or “heroes of old, men of renown.” Further, why would God decide to bring the flood on the earth (Genesis 6:5-7) when God had never forbade powerful human males or descendants of Seth to marry ordinary human females or descendants of Cain? The oncoming judgment of Genesis 6:5-7 is linked to what took place in Genesis 6:1-4. Only the obscene, perverse marriage of fallen angels with human females would seem to justify such a harsh judgment.

As previously noted, the weakness of the first view is that Matthew 22:30 declares, “At the resurrection people will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven.” However, the text does not say “angels are not able to marry.” Rather, it indicates only that angels do not marry. Second, Matthew 22:30 is referring to the “angels in heaven.” It is not referring to fallen angels, who do not care about God’s created order and actively seek ways to disrupt God’s plan. The fact that God’s holy angels do not marry or engage in sexual relations does not mean the same is true of Satan and his demons.

View 1) is the most likely position. Yes, it is an interesting “contradiction” to say that angels are sexless and then to say that the “sons of God” were fallen angels who procreated with human females. However, while angels are spiritual beings (Hebrews 1:14), they can appear in human, physical form (Mark 16:5). The men of Sodom and Gomorrah wanted to have sex with the two angels who were with Lot (Genesis 19:1-5). It is plausible that angels are capable of taking on human form, even to the point of replicating human sexuality and possibly even reproduction. Why do the fallen angels not do this more often? It seems that God imprisoned the fallen angels who committed this evil sin, so that the other fallen angels would not do the same (as described in Jude 6). Earlier Hebrew interpreters and apocryphal and pseudopigraphal writings are unanimous in holding to the view that fallen angels are the “sons of God” mentioned in Genesis 6:1-4. This by no means closes the debate. However, the view that Genesis 6:1-4 involves fallen angels mating with human females has a strong contextual, grammatical, and historical basis." www.gotquestions.org

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Solomon101 Sep 20, 2011

Just a reflective thought here... the verse referenced in the thread concerning Jesus and the resurrection states-

Matthew 22:28-30. 28 Therefore in the resurrection whose wife shall she be of the seven? for they all had her.
29 Jesus answered and said unto them, Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God.
30 For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven.(KJV)

There is nothing to indicate that the angels are incapable of sexual activity. It merely states that there will be no marriages that happen between men and women once they are in eternity in heaven. That is far different that actually saying they are incapable of sexual relations.

Being "as the angels in heaven" could just as easily mean they are fully capable of sexual relations but choose to be married to, and exclusively devoted to, God alone.

Not making a doctrine of it by any means...it is just interesting to note what is actually said verses what folks often think was said.

Blessings.

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