Quite obviously God does NOT meet all our needs, despite Christian songs to the contrary. So, this got me thinking, when God fails to meet a man's needs, and the man then sins in order to meet that need on his own, why does God still find fault? Why does He still call it sin? I've been turning this question over and over in my mind trying to come to an answer. Does anyone know?
For example....
A woman enters into fornication to meet her need for intimacy, touch, and affection. She expected and asked God to meet it but He didn't. No one else is being hurt by what she and her boyfriend are doing.
A jobless man steals to meet his need for money to pay his bills, support his family. He expected God to meet his need for a job but yet he remained jobless. In this case, someone is probably being hurt by the man's theft, but not as much as the man doing the stealing, since he is much more poor than they.
Another man can't sleep because of terrible pain in his broken body, so he drinks himself into a stupor every night in order to both escape some of the pain, to relax, and to knock himself out if possible. Or perhaps he steals drugs or deals in street drugs in order to achieve this. He begged God to take away his pain, but He didn't. If the man lives alone, no one else is suffering because of his drunkenness.
If he has a family, then someone is being hurt by it. But again, God could have met his need for healing but chose not to.
There are probably many more such examples of valid needs and ways to meet them. The persons may or may not be Christians. If it makes a difference, let's pretend they are.
I've never heard any theology on this question. What say ye?
