So here's another one of those passages, that no matter how I read I can't really seem to get my mind around it.
In Genesis 18:20-21 we see the LORD speaking to Abraham saying,
"And the LORD said, "The outcry of Sodom and Gomorrah is indeed great, and their sin is exceedingly grave. "I will go down now, and see if they have done entirely according to its outcry, which has come to Me; and if not, I will know."
The thing that I can't seem to understand is this element of "not knowing" and "if".
We all know that God is all knowing, and there's nothing that escapes Him, astounds Him, or surprises Him.
We see that later the LORD promises to spare the city for the sake of ten righteous men. However the LORD still destroys the city without investigating the whole city Himself, as He(They) are only ever in it company of Lot.
Now, I'm not saying that He somehow broke His promise to Abraham, because He knew, even without having to investigate the whole city in person that there were not ten righteous. He knew when He was speaking to Abraham that there were not ten righteous. He knew before He went to Sodom that He would destroy it. He knew before the world began that He would destroy it.
So why did He phrase verse 21 the way that He did?
Is it a difficulty in translation that doesn't convey well in English?
Young's Literal Translation reads it as;
"I go down now, and see whether according to its cry which is coming unto Me they have done completely -- and if not -- I know;'"
Which could perhaps make a bit more sense.
As honestly, the only reason I see God going down there at all was to save Lot and possibly, (though I have no proof) perhaps somehow give them an opportunity to repent and become righteous?
I know that once this clicks it's going to reveal something incredible, but I just can't get my mind around it.
Thoughts?
