Heydave wrote:
"because in no way has anything close to this happened yet."
Indeed not.
But neither has this happened to Edom:
"Its streams shall be turned into pitch,
And its dust into brimstone;
Its land shall become burning pitch.
It shall not be quenched night or day;
Its smoke shall ascend forever.
From generation to generation it shall lie waste;
No one shall pass through it forever and ever."
Is 34:9:10.
Last time I checked smoke was not still ascending from Edom. But the inspired prophet says it **shall** ascend forever. Was Isaiah mistaken? Or simply using a certain type of literary device to convey God's judgment?
If you want I kind find a whole lot of other apocalyptic passages in the prophets that is clearly figurative.
If you try to read Revelation literally, I think it creates problems. I am not saying that Rev does not describe progressive judgment; the question is whether it is appropriate to take the language **itself** literally.
I think some people get nervous when I say that I don't take a lot of the language in Rev literally because they then conclude that I do not believe it is sacred scripture, or important, or that God can do stuff, etc. Revelation is apocalyptic literature, which, by definition, can't necessarily be taken literally.
Rev 1:1 which you quoted says things that must "shortly" come to pass. Are we to take that literally or not? If not, why should we take other parts literally?
Now, just because I am saying this about Rev and the apocalyptic language in the Prophets, it **does not** mean that I am always looking for "natural explanations" for supernatural events in the Bible.
I believe that Jesus worked real miracles; I believe that Jonah was really swallowed by a great fish; I believe that God did work great miracles in the Exodus. But those stories are written as historical events. They are not employing apocalyptic language. But Jesus did use apocalyptic language in the Olivet Discourse.