This question came to me as I was reading the following quote from Paul West.
The Son of Man had his own will which was subject to emotion, marvel, hunger, sadness, frustration, etc. He was clearly distressed when He asked His Father to take the cup from Him! For the first time since the inception of eternity the Son of God was about to be separated from His Father (and some believe descend into hell), carrying the burdens of all the sins of the world.
Luke 22-42:-"Father, if you are willing, please take this cup of suffering away from me. Yet I want your will to be done, not mine.”
So this Cup was something that was going to separate Lord Jesus from his heavenly father based on Paul West's quote above. Nothing separates man from God than sin. So the Cup should be the sin of the world. I agree with the same.
Matthew 20:22- But Jesus answered by saying to them, "You don’t know what you are asking! Are you able to drink from the bitter cup of suffering I am about to drink?”
"Oh yes,” they replied, "we are able!”
Jesus told them, "YOU WILL DRINK FROM MY BITTER CUP. But I have no right to say who will sit on my right or my left. My Father has prepared those places for the ones he has chosen.”
If Jesus referred the sins of the world as cup then why did he say that his disciples will take that cup which he took as well? Don't we all believe that Jesus was the only Lamb who took over our sins?
So the cup here means Physical sufferings then did Jesus get disturbed by the fear of Physical sufferings, while the martyrs of New covenant went to death singing?
So which ever way you answer you will be hit, so please think well to give a logical answer. This is a genuine question.
