Recently I have come across some comments some certain people who raise good points but yet I don't know how a Christian responds to them. It comes down to the OT being so different from the NT that many think they are 2 different Gods. The OT God seems more like Allah then Jesus in some of its acts of brutality. In any case I want to share some comments and I am asking how you would respond to them.
"The Muslim god, and the Christian god, are one in the same. In the Christian bible he mandated them to keep all the young virgin girls alive as sex slaves. That's rape, and slavery, in one whop. So many christians involved in the church, or pastors, or priests get accused, or arrested, for pedophilia, that I think the christian god must love pedophilia. If not, why doesn't he stop them from doing it? Where is god's armor, like (name withheld) says? So many christians say that gay marriage will lead to bestiality, so why can't I say that christianity leads to pedophilia? There's wayyyyyyy more evidence for this case! "
"Read what the bible condones...Does the bible condone rape and paedophilia?
I want to be very careful in how I phrase this question because I know that it might stir up all manner of hysteria, but take a look at the following bible verse, and lets try to think about what it says:
"Numbers 31:17-18 Now therefore kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman that hath known man by lying with him. But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves".
This, to me, seems to be suggesting that the winning side (God's) in this story are free according to God - nay, are commanded by God Himself! - to spare the young, female children left after this battle for sexual slavery.
Are there any Christians who are honest enough to admit that can honestly say that this question gives them problems, or do they really and truly believe that such actions are worthy of a God of love? Again, I do not ask this question to cause trouble, merely to say that there are surely some verses in the bible that God does not intend us to believe as being His explicit orders or His declared intention, will or desire. Could we have a sensible debate about this one, please?
