PreachParsly
Apr 19, 2005
Ok can the word pis'-tis which is translated faith 239/244 in the KJV be understood as "conviction of a moral or Godly truth"? I belive it can..(I seen something similar in Thayers and Strongs) but i have no greek knowledge. If it is so then I have just had more than a lightbulb, but a spotlight turned on James Chapter 2 where he talks so much about works and faith. Because if faith in that scripture can mean conviction of a truth then it makes perfect sense what he is talking about. "if you are convicted of something but not responsive to it (works) this is it nothing. and just because you are convicted of sin that doesnt mean that you are saved" I would like to hear some input. Ive just been thinking alot about the book of James and this is a conclusion I have come up with. Thanks guys!*edit* Are pure works not this: that we respond to the conviction of God? *edit*
PreachParsly
Apr 19, 2005
matt13:3-9I guess I don't understand :-? How is that a response to my question?
PreachParsly
Apr 20, 2005
OK.. I guess I just dont understand.. I was asking if the word faith could be interpreted conviction of a moral or religious truth in that scripture. If you are trying to help then please explain..I really hope I'm not coming off rude but I have no idea what you are trying to say.. :-(
PreachParsly
Apr 20, 2005
Ok no problem.. 8-) I just thought maybe I couldnt see what you were trying to say.
PreachParsly
Apr 20, 2005
Well... I was just looking at what thayers and strongs said about the word faith. Strongs says this:pis'-tisFrom G3982; persuasion, that is, credence; moral conviction (of religious truth, or the truthfulness of God or a religious teacher), especially reliance upon Christ for salvation; abstractly constancy in such profession; by extension the system of religious (Gospel) truth itself: - assurance, belief, believe, faith, fidelity.Thayer says this:pistisThayer Definition:1) conviction of the truth of anything, belief; in the NT of a conviction or belief respecting man’s relationship to God and divine things, generally with the included idea of trust and holy fervour born of faith and joined with it...And the thought came to mind that conviction doesn't mean anything if you do not respond to it. And it just seemed to go together that conviction without works (a response or change of action) is dead. I wasnt trying to limit faith to just a conviction. I was just asking if that was a valid way to interpret the verse. Or in other words could the word conviction take the place of the word faith in those few verses in James and you get the same meaning out of it.
PreachParsly
Apr 21, 2005
Thanks Philo... this is what I was looking for..either a correction or affirmation.. but what about Strongs, it says close to the same thing? I didnt know much about Thayer.. thanks..
ReceivedText
Apr 23, 2005
Does someone need to know Greek to truly understand the Bible??? If that is true, then every church in the world should begin offering Greek lessons to all. Crazy, but this is what we gather from preachers who constantly get their kick off of saying, "in the ORIGINAL Greek it REALLY says..." If you really can't understand the Bible correctly without knowing Greek, then the preacher stands in between the people and God. We have Roman Catholicism back again.The truth of the matter is that every time we "go to the Greek," we are RE-TRANSLATING the Bible. Let me ask you a question. Do you feel qualified to translate the Bible? The men who translated the KJV were eminent scholars who really knew Jesus Christ and had the fear of God that if they were to gravely err in their translation that their name would be blotted out of the book of Life.New scholars believe the Bible should be translated like any other book. Check me out. They pick and choose and guess what they think is right because they entertain a corrupt textual stream.For more info click here:http://www.bbconfire.com/articles/drdavidbrown/greatuncials.aspYou don't have to know Greek to understand the Bible, it has been accurately translated for you by a committee of many men who took the whole counsel of a whole country: England. Any man could send in suggestions to the committee. Private interpretation?? Nope. Not with the KJV.Blessings,TR
PreachParsly
Apr 23, 2005
So in other words your saying its a waste of time to want to look at the greek? and the KJV is infallible? Private interpretation?? Nope.Thats why I started this thread.
ReceivedText
Apr 24, 2005
Of course it is not a waste of time to look at the Greek. It is just not necessary to understand the Bible and it's message. Greek words like "diakonos" were taken right across into English as "deacon." Here a simple knowledge of the Greek could help. But the Bible has a built in dictionary. If you look at the first, second, or third mention of the word in the Bible it will define itself. Take the word "cockatrice." Do you know what a cockatrice is? Go look at the first mentions of this word. You will find it is a fiery, flying, serpent. And that is just what a cockatrice is. God defined it in the Bible. This works throughout scripture.The German Luther Bible is God's word in German, the Reina-Valera Spanish is God's word in Spanish, and so on. English is not the only pure vernacular translation. If translations can't be pure, we all need to learn Greek and Hebrew. How can you dispute this?Can you really hold up your Bible and say it is infallable? I hope you can. Can you say, "Every promise in the book is mine, every promise, every verse, every line?"