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Theology

Did God Allow Polygamy?

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TMK Jul 22, 2015

If God did allow polygamy, why? Can we come up with a reason why that doesn't sound silly, or pandering to cultural concerns at that time? And if there are reasons that aren't silly, do those reasons exist today?

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Heydave Jul 22, 2015

He allowed, but did not design it. Just like Jesus said Moses (under God) permitted divorce, but it was not that way from the beginning.

Why allow polygamy? Because of the hardness of their hearts because there was so much out of God's order that I believe God was taking a progressive restoration of things back into human understanding. This was something He would deal with later, while He dealt with other issues.

Today we want the best of God's plan, not looking for options around it. Jesus said "In the beginning God made man and woman and a man shall leave his father and mother and cleave unto his wife and the TWO shall become ONE flesh". He did not say three or four become one flesh. This is the final revelation and how God originally designed it to be.

Even in more New Testament times slavery was accepted and dealt with as something that just existed. That does not mean God condoned it or wanted it and eventually man came to see this was not a Godly way to treat another person.

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TMK Jul 22, 2015

I certainly agree that polygamy is not for today. But when we say that God allowed something that was sin, it SEEMS like he has some sort of a sliding scale on sin, as in polygamy- not so bad; adultery or idolatry (or God forbid picking up sticks on the Sabbath) absolutely not.

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Heydave Jul 22, 2015

Maybe you need to put that question to the LORD and see what He says to you.

I would be interested in what He says. Honestly!

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Sree Jul 22, 2015


I certainly agree that polygamy is not for today. But when we say that God allowed something that was sin, it SEEMS like he has some sort of a sliding scale on sin, as in polygamy- not so bad; adultery or idolatry (or God forbid picking up sticks on the Sabbath) absolutely not.

I totally agree with the answer that Dave gave. God did not count polygamy as a sin in Old Covenant. It is a sin only in New Covenant. Even in Old Covenant there was a man called Job who made covenant with his eyes so that it does not lust after a virgin women. Job lived in a period before Moses or Abraham, and there was no law. But he knew that God did not like him to be unfaithful to his wife.

God did not design polygamy but permitted it and did not count it as sin because men were totally powerless against lust of their flesh in sexual matter. Hence God permitted them to marry to satisfy their lusts. Our God never made unrealistic expectations.

But in New Covenant, we have grace through Jesus Christ. We have the spirit of God living inside us. Hence it is possible to exercise self control. Now with this provision, if we still indulge in polygamy then we have only ourselves to blame.

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dolfan Jul 22, 2015

TMK,

When we say "allow" do we mean "permitted and sanctioned" or "gave room for and did not intervene to override human will". Epitrepo (permit, Matthew 19:8) is in the sense of the latter. It has the same sort of permission as 1 Samuel 8 when God tells Samuel to "listen to the voice of the people". The hearts of the people being hard and so desiring their own way that God leaves them to their desires, God hears the demands and permits them.

So, in context, it seem that we slide the covers over our heads, so to speak. 😊

The end of it is death. God gives people over to their desires. I think of this passage from Psalm 107:

10 There were those who dwelt in darkness and in the shadow of death,
Prisoners in misery and chains,
11 Because they had rebelled against the words of God
And spurned the counsel of the Most High.
12 Therefore He humbled their heart with labor;
They stumbled and there was none to help.
13 Then they cried out to the Lord in their trouble;
He saved them out of their distresses.
14 He brought them out of darkness and the shadow of death
And broke their bands apart.
15 Let them give thanks to the Lord for His lovingkindness,
And for His wonders to the sons of men!
16 For He has shattered gates of bronze
And cut bars of iron asunder.
17 Fools, because of their rebellious way,
And because of their iniquities, were afflicted.
18 Their soul abhorred all kinds of food,
And they drew near to the gates of death.
19 Then they cried out to the Lord in their trouble;
He saved them out of their distresses.
20 He sent His word and healed them,
And delivered them from their destructions.
21 Let them give thanks to the Lord for His lovingkindness,
And for His wonders to the sons of men!
22 Let them also offer sacrifices of thanksgiving,
And tell of His works with joyful singing.

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TMK Jul 22, 2015

Sree wrote:

"God did not design polygamy but permitted it and did not count it as sin because men were totally powerless against lust of their flesh in sexual matter. Hence God permitted them to marry to satisfy their lusts. Our God never made unrealistic expectations. "

This is the answer that makes the most honest sense- that God didn't consider it sin at all. I had never thought about this in that vein because I never considered that something could be a sin now that wasn't in prior times. If that concept is true it does explain some things.

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romanchog Jul 23, 2015

"Jesus hrist is the same yesterday, today, and forever." Heb 13:8

The thought of saying, "that did not used to be a sin, but now it is" does not fit in the context of scripture. Our God is a Holy God, Who has always been Holy and always will be. He does not change His mind. That would imply that He is changing and then we cannot trust what He has to say for today. He is the SAME always.

In matters like this, I like to go back to what Jesus said when they asked Him about divorce. He stated,"Have you not read that He who made them AT THE BEGINNING ‘made them male and female.' Mat 19:4. And then He stated: "but FROM THE BEGINNING it was not so." Mat 19:8

He was explaining that to God, divorce has always been a sin; look back at the beginning and see the plan of God.

This applies here as well. In THE BEGINNING he made only ONE man and ONE woman. That is His plan. Anything outside of God's plan is sin. Just because He did not strike down everyone who was a polygamist or because nothing is outrightly stated on it does not mean that God did not count it as sin.

If we even use logic, let us look at the institution of divorce. If polygamy was ok, what is the need for divorce? The man could just marry another woman and have two (or more) wives.

When we do not understand something, let us first look to the character of God before we start trying to explain it. I do not know why God permitted many things to happen that are written for us in the Bible, and even many of the commands that He gives. But I have to remember that God is God, and He is infinitely wise and I have to trust in that. We should take care not to create strange doctrines.

In Christ,

Natalie

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TMK Jul 23, 2015

Natalie-

What you are stating is what I have always thought. However it doesn't seem to square with the facts. I mean, God seemed to bless Jacobs marriage to both Leah and Rachel. He formed the nation is Israel out of those unions.

I agree this is difficult. If slavery was sin (and we certainly would think so today) why did God give laws to Moses on how to deal with slaves, instead of just saying "one person may not own another?" After all, His chosen people were brutalized in slavery for 400 years. If anyone should have been against slavery it should have been the Hebrews. And Paul never forbade the practice either, and surely God had his ear.

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romanchog Jul 23, 2015

In the same vein, if divorce is sin (and even in the old testament the Lord makes clear that this is so) why did God give rules on how to divorce your wife?

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TMK Jul 23, 2015

I am hoping you can tell me!

It seems almost irreconcilable that God made provision for something as serious as the abandonment of an innocent spouse but commanded that picking up sticks on the Sabbath warranted stoning.

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romanchog Jul 23, 2015

TMK, I cannot tell you why God does what He does. But I do not need to because I trust His judgments. And most likely, our finite mind cannot understand all the depths of His wisdom. We cannot try to rationalize things to make sense to us if they come out of His character. To be honest, the gospel does NOT make sense! But it is the wisdom of God for salvation to all who believe.

I feel that when you state that He "commanded that picking up sticks on the Sabbath warranted stoning" you are coming close to judging the Lord your God. I am not saying you are, but it sounds like it. There are questions about God that we have, such as yours, and we have to ask them in humbleness.

I have been troubled by many of the things that God commanded. They seem to be so harsh and unmerciful, so unlike my God. I don't remember exactly where this is, but there is portion in the law where God commands that those who follow the Lord should kill anyone, including family members, who turn away from serving Him. This sounds so much like a Muslim ideology, not like something our merciful God would say. This has troubled me. I have asked Him; I have not received a response. NONETHELESS, I have to rest in knowing Whom I serve.

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TMK Jul 23, 2015

Hello Natalie:

I agree with your post. That is what my wife says to me when I ask hard questions so I am used to it!

I am not judging God.. Just asking a question about something clearly spelled out in scripture. I think asking the hard questions is not dishonoring to God- at least it doesn't HAVE to be. Atheists ask these questions and I think it is wise to have some sort of a viable answer other than "God works in mysterious ways."

I know a guy from another forum that has such difficulty with some of the commands in the OT law, (including the sticks issue I mentioned and the ordeal of the woman accused of adultery who is forced to drink a concoction of dust from the tabernacle ground) that he has come up with the idea that many of the laws (other than the 10 commandments) were Moses's idea- not God's.

I certainly won't go that far. But I understand his frustration.

sermonindex Jul 23, 2015

Hi guys,
May I share with you what polygamy's legacy has done to so many who joined the Mormon church. Though it was outlawed before Utah could become a state, so many men and women, children, families lives were affected by polygamy. Much sexual abuse has been handed down even through the mainline church. Those who are still practicing polygamy in FLDS groups have also been suffering for years.

There are Christians called out here to preach the gospel of Christ and minister to those who leave Mormonism, but the legacy of Joseph Smith has been torrential And God hates it.

Please pray for the lost in the Mormon church and the offshoots. Jesus came to set them free.

One who has been set free in Christ,
Sister Leslie

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TMK Jul 23, 2015

Will pray Leslie. I know of someone it Utah on a mission trip this week.

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Sree Jul 24, 2015

Natalie said:-
Jesus hrist is the same yesterday, today, and forever." Heb 13:8

The thought of saying, "that did not used to be a sin, but now it is" does not fit in the context of scripture. Our God is a Holy God, Who has always been Holy and always will be. He does not change His mind. That would imply that He is changing and then we cannot trust what He has to say for today. He is the SAME always.

Sister, I never said God changed his mind. I never said Polygamy was not a sin in OT but now it is a sin. Please understand what I said which I believe is the answer from God's own heart. I said that God did not count Polygamy as a sin for those under Old Covenant. He never gave a law against Polygamy. Under Old Covenant we do not see God rejecting a person due to polygamy. In fact he has given laws concerning polygamy as well. He has given a law to kings that they should not marry MANY wives. Sin is not counted where there is no law. That does not mean it is not sin. But it is not visible unless a law is present. This is what Apostle Paul says in Romans 7.

Sin is in short anything that displeases God. Laws are nothing but boundaries that God has given to live a life that pleases him.

Let me explain this with a simple example. Suppose you have a 6 months old baby. You certainly do not like this baby to urinate in your bed. But when the baby does that you do not discipline the baby for urinating on the bed. You know that the baby cannot control urine nor does it have knowledge about how this hurts you. So you tolerate this act of the baby. But you also put a diaper so that even if the baby urinates on your bed, it does not affect much. This is exactly what God did with people of Old Testament. God did not like Polygamy but did not count it as Sin because men were powerless in Old Covenant to control their sexual desires. But it certainly did not please God. The very first book of Bible is Job (based on when it was written). God choose to write about a man who lived with single wife.

Now when you have a 10 year old, you certain do not like this kid to urinate in your bed. So when the kid does it you disciple this kid. You tell the kid how much you hate this action of his. Are you a changed parent between this 6 month old and 10 year old? No you are the same, you hate the action of urinating the same, but you behave differently to each of them based on their capacity.

Jesus himself said in Sermon on the mount that he did not come to abolish the law but to strengthen it. He has raised the standard higher than what it was by giving us his spirit. In OT God did not count anger as a sin but now Jesus said Anger can throw us into hell.

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Sree Jul 24, 2015


I agree this is difficult. If slavery was sin (and we certainly would think so today) why did God give laws to Moses on how to deal with slaves, instead of just saying "one person may not own another?" After all, His chosen people were brutalized in slavery for 400 years. If anyone should have been against slavery it should have been the Hebrews. And Paul never forbade the practice either, and surely God had his ear.

I want to answer this because this is a question that unbelievers commonly ask us. I have a friend with whom whenever I shared Gospel, he will argue about so many things. Finally he will tell me that the Bible is not correct because it supports slavery.

This is the answer that I gave. I am sure there are better answer than this. Slavery was the only form of work in those days. It was common in all culture and in all nations. So God gave them laws about slavery. Even in New Covenant, Paul wants masters to treat their salves well. In short Jesus said treat others the way you want them to treat you. This also includes slaves.

Now slavery itself is not wrong. The way we treated the slaves in past were wrong. We still have some form of slavery. Consider my position in the secular cooperate job. I have to ask permission from my manager for taking leave, for leaving the office, for the time of shift etc. Within the 9 hours of my shift, I am totally under the control of my Boss. This is still some form of slavery. Do I have all the rights to behave as I wanted? NO. Then how is this not a slavery?

So only thing that changed from slavery of old time to the modern day manager employee concept is, hours of work, certain privileges for employee, abolition of the word slave and freedom to leave if I do not like (but will not be provided bread for family if I leave). So in short we are still following the same system unless we design a company or a system where there is no boss and everyone is free to do as he wishes. They cannot bring such a system because they all know it won't work. So we only made slavery better and nicer which is exactly what God did. A person who worked under Canadian law, will find Indian way of work as slavery. I as an Indian see Japanese work culture as slavery. So slavery still lives in one form or another.

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rainydaygirl Jul 24, 2015

leslie

i find myself in that area of the country now a days and agree much prayer is needed

rdg

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ginnyrose Jul 25, 2015

Ok, I did not read the entire thread so please excuse me if I am repeating what has been said. On the other hand it is nice when someone else will reaffirm your point.

Why did God allow polygamy in the OT? As I understand it it was for the propagation of the human race. Sometimes the casualities in war made for a shortage of males for the remaining females - a lot of women were left with no males to marry, so what males were left they could take multiple females to be their wives and thus sire children to assure the survival of their people.

I was told that after WW1 Russia experienced a severe shortage of men due to the casualites sustained then. I have not read that they resorted to polygamy to replenish their country. But do wonder if this fact factors in their refusal to encourage and allow homosexual relationships? Just guessing. In any case when a country engages in war and a lot of men are killed it will make for a male shortage in society - men are essential for the survival of the human race.

To me this would explain why God allowed polygamy among his people. On the other hand we know kings and others took multiple wives which seemed to me a point of prestige. Initially God had commanded the kings to "not multiply wives to himself"(Deut. 17:17) but they did not obey and got into a lot of trouble because of it.

This is the way I understand it and where I learned this, I do not recall - after 68 years of sojourn on this planet one cannot recall the sources of all the infomation stored in this old brain.

Sandra

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TMK Jul 25, 2015

Sandra-

You seem to be agreeing with Sree that polygamy was not a sin in Gods eyes in the OT. But presumably it is today.

If God allowed it, it couldn't be sin. At least I do not see how He could.

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