Sure. I heard this perspective from a man who ministers to family issues and began to dig into the scripture to see if what he was saying was plausible. This is what I found.
I had always thought of possessing my vessel as the day to day conduct of maintaining my own body in purity. But the term possess in the Greek here does not mean to maintain, but rather to acquire or to obtain. So I am to acquire my vessel in sanctification and holiness. The only example given in Thayer's lexicon is to marry a wife. The word vessel is a word with very broad usage. But if the act of possessing indicates the act of acquiring, then the only usage that seems to make sense is that the vessel in this case refers to your wife. Men are often referred to as vessels, and the wife is referred to as the weaker vessel 1 Peter.
Verse 3 tells us to abstain from fornication. Verse 5 contrasts our behavior as believers with that of the Gentiles who possess their vessels in the lust of concupiscence. Concupiscence is lust, desire, or craving. It is a fleshly desire to have something. Again, we are implying that we are seeking to acquire something. To defraud in verse 6 means to take something that rightfully belongs to someone else.
So if I put it all together in this context, assuming that possessing means the act of acquiring a wife, this is the message.
A Godly man should abstain from fornication (that is from sexual relationships with women outside of the marriage covenant). He should know how to go about acquiring a wife in sanctification and honor. Not the way the Gentiles acquire a wife by pursuing the objects of their fleshly lust, until they find the one they desire the most. To do this is to defraud their brothers, to take from them something that only rightfully belongs to them, that is the body and heart of their future wife.
I just wonder if anyone has ever considered that this way of thinking about these scriptures. As I studied this, I finally decided to find out what several commentators had to say. If found it interesting. Clarke in his commentary gives this as one possible interpretation. Gill also gives it as one possibility. Several commentators are strong in saying that this is specifically dealing with personal sexual behavior, but at least two that I read say that it is hard to tell in this case whether Paul was referring to keeping our personal purity, or obtaining a wife.
What I saw was that the surrounding verses make perfect sense in both cases. To interpret this as acquiring a wife does not do any harm to the context or the interpretation of the surrounding scriptures.
I just wondered what others might think of this interpretation.