And the LORD spoke to Moses, saying, Speak to the children of Israel, and say to them, When a man shall make a singular vow, the persons shall be for the LORD, by thy estimation. And thy estimation shall be, of the male from twenty years old even to sixty years old, even thy estimation shall be fifty shekels of silver, after the shekel of the sanctuary. And if it shall be a female, then thy estimation shall be thirty shekels. And if it shall be from five years old even to twenty years old, then thy estimation shall be of the male twenty shekels, and for the female ten shekels. And if it shall be from a month old even to five years old, then thy estimation shall be of the male five shekels of silver, and for the female thy estimation shall be three shekels of silver. And if it shall be from sixty years old and above; if a male, then thy estimation shall be fifteen shekels, and for the female ten shekels. Leviticus 27:1-7
Did the translators of the original Hebrew Scriptures translate these verses wrong? Does anybody think that the male scholars were biased, therefore mistranslated?
It begins with the words, "The LORD spoke to Moses." Does anybody think the scholars added those words and it was merely Moses who spoke and said what followed?
I realize that I have asked more questions than one, so if it be too overwhelming for any just let it pass.
