Hi Colin,
How do you understand this passage from Nahum 1 in the light of what we read from II Thessalonians 2:1-12? Here's that passage from the NASB:
1 Now we ask you, brothers and sisters, regarding the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering together to Him, 2 that you not be quickly shaken from your composure or be disturbed either by a spirit, or a message, or a letter as if from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come.
3 No one is to deceive you in any way! For it will not come unless the apostasy comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction,
4 who opposes and exalts himself above every so-called god or object of worship, so that he takes his seat in the temple of God, displaying himself as being God.
5 Do you not remember that while I was still with you, I was telling you these things?
6 And you know what restrains him now, so that he will be revealed in his time.
7 For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; only He who now restrains will do so until He is removed.
8 Then that lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord will eliminate with the breath of His mouth and bring to an end by the appearance of His coming;
9 that is, the one whose coming is in accord with the activity of Satan, with all power and false signs and wonders,
10 and with all the deception of wickedness for those who perish, because they did not accept the love of the truth so as to be saved.
11 For this reason God will send upon them a deluding influence so that they will believe what is false,
12 in order that they all may be judged who did not believe the truth, but took pleasure in wickedness.
II Thessalonians 2:1-12
In verse 4, Paul speaks about how the "man of lawlessness" will take "his seat" in the temple of God and "display himself" as "being God."
The NIV words this verse as follows: "He will oppose and will exalt himself over everything that is called God or is worshiped, so that he sets himself up in God’s temple, proclaiming himself to be God."
As often as I've studied eschatology, I've always been perplexed by this passage.
For one, the physical "temple" in Jerusalem was destroyed just a few years after the Second Epistle to the Thessalonians was written. Moreover, I question (with an open mind) whether this "temple" is the physical Temple in Jerusalem or something else altogether.
We know what Paul wrote about how our bodies are the "temple of the Holy Spirit" (I Corinthians 3:16 and 6:19-20). Collectively, as also written in I Corinthians, we know that we all are part of the Body of Christ. So, with this in mind, I have often wondered whether Paul was referring to the "temple" via this understanding of the word or if he was simply referring to the physical temple in Jerusalem.
Many eschatological teachers seem to believe that this refers to a temple in Jerusalem. Since there is no temple anymore (thanks to General Titus and the Romans), this makes those teachers believe that a temple will be rebuilt.
However, some believe that this "temple" is referring to the church -- the Body of Christ -- made up of individuals who are the "Temple of the Holy Ghost." This would be interpreted that the antichrist would seat himself in the church. As believers are expecting Christ's return, they assume that the Antichrist will proclaim this to be himself.
As my wife and I have read through the New Testament this current time through it, I'm trying to list all of the passages that refer to the Antichrist. Are there any other passages that you think indicate the Antichrist's origin?