Can the 'sons of God' still produce offspring or has something changed?ZekeOI think it is important to remind ourselves that we are engaged in a 'best fit' exercise here. I have often made this point on SI on these themes but here it is again. Imagine two intersecting circles.. One represents the 'story of mankind' and is pretty much the subject of the Bible, the other represents the 'story of angel-kind'; this latter is not the main subject of the Bible. In fact all we really know about the second circle is from the tiny intersection where the angels' story impacts ours. Consequently we are in danger of trying to extrapolate a whole 'Angel-Bible' from that intersection and that is dangerous. God does give individual discernment of things outside the first circle but these must never become 'standard doctrines' of the church or fundamental to our whole understanding of God's ways with men; the Bible is our sufficient revelation for that. We stand in danger of being 'wiser than what has been written' as an old Quaker document put it. Having said that let me try to open out at least part of your question.“And Jehovah said, My spirit shall not strive with man for ever, for that he also is flesh: yet shall his days be a hundred and twenty years. The Nephilim were in the earth in those days, and also after that, when the sons of God came unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them: the same were the mighty men that were of old, the men of renown.” (Gen. 6:3-4, ASV)I've gone for the ASV here because it picks up the reference to 'Nephilim' that some using just the KJV may not have connected with this thread. Your question is 'can' it happen again? These verse certainly could be interpreted in the sense that Gen 6 was not a unique event. The phrase which gives us room to say this is "and also after that". After what? After the Nephilim were in the earth. So was there a second infestation after Gen 6? The Nephilim were in the earth in those days, and also after that, when the sons of God came unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them: the same were the mighty men that were of old, the men of renown. Gen. 6:4 (ASV)And there we saw the Nephilim, the sons of Anak, who come of the Nephilim: and we were in our own sight as grasshoppers, and so we were in their sight. Num. 13:33 (ASV) These are the only uses of the world 'Nephil' meaning 'a fallen one' in the scriptures. (Nephilim, is the plural form)Would this be a factor in God's determination that those who had been sexually active, as well as animals, were destroyed in the taking of Canaan. Is it possible that Goliath and his brothers were 'Nephilim'? Is this why God partly explained the Conquest of Canaan by saying 'the land is vomiting them out'? None of this specifically answers your question although there are those who have speculated that 'as in the days of Noah' (Matt. 24:37; Luke 17:26) might include this aspect of life in the 'days of Noah'. Would the passage from 1 Peter fit our hypothesis?“For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit: By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison; Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water.” (1Pet. 3:18-20, KJVS) Were these human spirits, and if so why are they singled out from all other human spirits? Personally I don't think these are human spirits and the word for 'preached' is not evangelised but proclaimed. How are we to understand this verse from Gen 6...“These are the generations of Noah: Noah was a just man and perfect in his generations, and Noah walked with God. And Noah begat three sons, Shem, Ham, and Japheth. The earth also was corrupt before God, and the earth was filled with violence. And God looked upon the earth, and, behold, it was corrupt; for all flesh had corrupted his way upon the earth.” (Gen. 6:9-12, KJVS)Is this indicating that Noah was uniquely 'human' (and his progeny) at this time? And what are we reading of here...For if God spared not angels when they sinned, but cast them down to hell, and committed them to pits of darkness, to be reserved unto judgment; 2Pet. 2:4 (ASV)And angels that kept not their own principality, but left their proper habitation, he hath kept in everlasting bonds under darkness unto the judgment of the great day. Jude 6 (ASV) This seems to be the context for another unusual Bible revelation in which the word 'Tartaros' is used...“For if God spared not the angels that sinned, but cast them down to hell, and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be reserved unto judgment; And spared not the old world, but saved Noah the eighth person, a preacher of righteousness, bringing in the flood upon the world of the ungodly;” (2Pet. 2:4-5, KJVS) Is this the fate of all fallen angels? or just those from the 'days of Noah'?Was all this a particularly diabolical conspiracy to make incarnation impossible? If the whole race became demonised how would Christ have entered the race? It easy to forget that God had determined that 'man' would be his route for reclamation and restoration. Was this the reason behind Satan's implacable opposition to the human race?So as to your specific question... could they still produce offspring? If my last paragraph is on the right lines, there would now be no purpose in such a conspiracy. Could they? Only if they were 'allowed'... and that stage of the conflict seems to be over now that we have a man in the heavens...